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-2 votes
1 answer
121 views

Why do Christians use "Lord" and "God" instead of "Yehueh" and "Elohim"?

Sefer Ha-Mitzvoth of Maimonides, Volume two, Negative Commandment 63: "Neither shalt thou profane the name of they God: I am the Lord." Lev. XVIII, 21. "And you shall not let any of ...
Bruce Craig's user avatar
3 votes
1 answer
8k views

How do Bible scholars reconcile the differences between Greek and Aramaic in John 21:15-17?

John 21:15-17 recounts a powerful conversation between Jesus and Peter, where Jesus asks Peter, three times, if he loves Him. Greek has several words for "love". In Greek, the dialogue goes like this: ...
Scott Deerwester's user avatar
10 votes
8 answers
8k views

Why did Jesus use a Greek proverb when He spoke Aramaic to Saul in Acts 26:14?

Saul spoke Greek, Aramaic, Hebrew, and Latin (there are many references). Jesus spoke Aramaic, Greek, and Hebrew (again there are many references). In Acts 26:14, Paul (who at this time was using his ...
romyjoven's user avatar
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4 votes
3 answers
2k views

Jesus' quotation of Septuagint - Greek or Aramaic?

Having read this and this, I am convinced now that Jesus spoke Aramaic. However, I also know that many times He was quoting Septuagint, which is a translation of the Old Testament into Koine Greek. I ...
brilliant's user avatar
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