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If we read John 16:25-30 we know Jesus sometimes spoke figuratively. Jesus even said so Himself.

My question is, in 2 places in Scripture is Jesus using the term death figuratively to refer to the second death? (Revelation 2:11, 20:6, 20:14, 21:8)

We can compare 2 examples with each other to interpret scripture with scripture:

1st:

51 Truly, truly, I say to you, if anyone keeps My word he will never see death.” The Jews said to Him, “Now we know that You have a demon. Abraham died, and the prophets also; and You say, ‘If anyone keeps My word, he will never taste of death.’ John 8:51-52

2nd:

27 For the Son of Man is going to come in the glory of His Father with His angels, and will then repay every man according to his deeds. 28 “Truly I say to you, there are some of those who are standing here who will not taste death until they see the Son of Man coming in His kingdom.” Matthew 16:27-28

Q: According to Protestant New Testament exegetes, did Jesus use figure of speech with respect to the second death in these 2 places in scripture?

Similar question: Bible phrase from the Gospel of Matthew

However, my question has to do more with the exegetical analysis of both the figurative vs literal aspect, and the aspect of consistency with Jesus’ teachings. Can we draw a realistic inference that Jesus uses “death” in the gospels to describe the second death?

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  • In Matthew 16:27-28, Jesus absolutely cannot be talking about the second death. He says "there are some of those who are standing here who will not taste death until they see the Son of Man coming in His kingdom". Did you notice the "until"? Is Jesus saying that they will see the second death (i.e. Gehenna/the lake of fire) when He comes with His kingdom? Of course not. John 8:51-52 on the other hand must be talking about the second death, or for those who believe Christians can't lose their salvation, possibly spiritual death (if there even is such a thing).
    – Rajesh
    Commented Jun 11, 2022 at 17:00
  • @Rajesh I would contend that based on Mark 8:34 Jesus said that to both the people and his disciples, cross reference Mark 8:34 (the parallel context to Matt 16:28) to Mark 9:1. “When He had called the people to Himself, with His disciples also, He said to them, “Whoever desires to come after Me, let him deny himself, and take up his cross, and follow Me.” ‭‭Mark‬ ‭8:34‬ - Death & Hades which hold the unrighteous dead are eventually cast into the lake of fire, which is the second death: Revelation 20:11-15. This can only happen when the Kingdom of God comes.
    – Cork88
    Commented Jun 11, 2022 at 17:57
  • Matthew 16:28 could simply be referring to what was about to happen only two verses later, his transfiguration.
    – Ray Butterworth
    Commented Jun 11, 2022 at 20:25
  • @RayButterworth That’s only a possible interpretation, not the only interpretation. I say this because Mark’s account mentions “When He had called the people to Himself, with His disciples also…” (Mark 8:34) that implies that some “people” who were present may end up not being saved and thus tasting death at the end of the age, namely: the second death. That’s at least an alternative explanation, hence my question. Jesus mentioning His return with His angels and the kingdom of God coming have reminiscent themes that are mainly found in the book of revelation.
    – Cork88
    Commented Jun 11, 2022 at 22:29

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