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And he said to them, “Truly I tell you, some who are standing here will not taste death before they see that the kingdom of God has come with power.” (NIV)

Jesus was in the presence of his followers when he made the statement in Mark 9:1 that there would be some alive to see the kingdom of God come. When I listen to the radio or watch TV the message I hear quite often is that Jesus will come and establish a kingdom and reign for 1,000 years. If someone could explain this contradiction I would appreciate it.

I would prefer if when someone gives an answer that it be a biblical answer and not something based on a opinion. (people with a pre-millennium view)

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    Welcome to Christianity.SE, and thanks for taking the site tour. For your question to work here, you would need to ask for the view of a particular group or denomination of Christians. Otherwise it is an opinion-based question, since people of different Christian churches will have different responses and different interpretations of the Bible. See: What topics can I ask about here? and: Types of questions that are within community guidelines. – Lee Woofenden Mar 26 '17 at 6:02
  • You might take a look at another live question, How can one not taste death? – guest37 Mar 27 '17 at 0:19
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    The patristic consensus on the interpretation of Mark 9:1ff., and related passages in Matthew and Luke, is that Christ was referring to His upcoming Transfiguration and, which came 6-8 days later and is the very next event documented in the three Gospels. – guest37 Mar 31 '17 at 18:19
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    There are many reasons why not to say things like "Jesus will come and establish a kingdom and reign for 1,000 years". Mark 9:1 is only one of them. But it's unclear to me precisely what you're asking. Are you asking why someone (who?) would say such a thing? I think this question would be much more answerable if you could provide a specific prophecy about end times, and ideally who said it, and ask for their justification (perhaps in light of Mark 9:1). As it is, it sounds more like a general topic for discussion. – Flimzy Apr 17 '17 at 10:53
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To understand this verse you must have a clear understanding of what "The Kingdom of God" actually is. A King's kingdom is where he is obeyed completely. His rule and reign are complete. So when Jesus uses this term it can easily be misinterpreted to mean a coming "thing" or heaven or some other such distant and more nebulous unexplained item.

The more scripturally congruent interpretation is the one above. Using those terms it is easy to see in Matthew 6:10

Your kingdom come, your will be done, on earth as it is in heaven.

or in Matthew 6:33
But seek first the kingdom of God and his righteousness, and all these things will be added to you.

Here in Matthew 7:21

Not everyone who says to me, ‘Lord, Lord,’ will enter the kingdom of heaven, but the one who does the will of my Father who is in heaven.

shows that entering the kingdom of God is not possible without repentance, which is also congruent with Luke 13:3 and 13:5

No, I tell you; but unless you repent, you will all likewise perish.

In Matthew 13:45-46 there is further congruence

Again, the kingdom of heaven is like a merchant in search of fine pearls, who, on finding one pearl of great value, went and sold all that he had and bought it.

Clear after you apply the correct logical premise by comparing it to related passages in scripture.

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    I provided a format upgrade to break out the scriptural passages for ease of reading. Please review the edit to ensure that your meaning and intention is retained. – KorvinStarmast May 17 '17 at 20:20

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