Would Jesus have been familiar with the Siddur?

Question

I've been reading a lot from Messianic Jewish sources. I'm really interested in the Siddur, but I can't find any sources which can tell me if the prayers and rituals in the Siddur were practiced in Jesus' time? Basically, I'm trying to figure out if the prayers in the Siddur are prayers with which Jesus would be familiar.

Answer 1

I don’t know if this is relevant, but I found this comment in Judaism Stack Exchange:

One of the most ancient parts of the liturgy was the first line of Psalms 118/136, usually translated along the lines of "Give thanks to HaShem, for He is good, for His mercy/lovingkindness endures forever". It is directly stated as being said in I Chronicles 16:34, as part of David's prayer, and also in II Chronicles 7:3, when the people saw the fire and cloud and prostrated themselves after Solomon's prayer. Jeremiah even quotes it in 33:11 as part of the promise of the Restoration, so it must have been a common part of the First Temple liturgy.

In Judaism Stack Exchange I found this question asking if there is evidence of Second Temple period Liturgies in use from the time of Ezra to the destructions of 70 A.D. and 130 A.D. Richard (who answered his own question) made reference to the work of Paul F. Bradshaw https://www.amazon.com/Paul-F.-Bradshaw/e/B001IQW9E0/ who:

indicates that evidence is not found of early Christian borrowing from Judaic practices for purposes of codifying a set Eucharistic Liturgy. Dr. Bradshaw suggests what we have in primitive days is the Didache, possibly the early forms of East Syrian Eucharistic prayers, prayers referenced in Book 7 of Apostolic Constitutions, possible primitive form of the Sanctus, and nothing else. If any of you have sourced reference to ANY other primary, primitive evidence pre-dating c.3rd Century AD, please post.

Dr. Bradshaw's Liturgy work points out what other scholarly work triangulates, that Liturgy is largely a product of the Nicene era, not owing its form to Judaic practices. Instead, we still have the echo-chamber effect of "liturgical forms copied over from Jewish practices". Having said that, Margaret Barker would seem to have the most keen interest in hammering out an evidence-based case for Christian Liturgy indebted to TEMPLE forms, specifically 1st/Solomon's Temple praxis. She may do so yet, but the case she set forth to this point is speculative and rather controversial.

Richard concluded:

Jesus's inner-circle had no "Liturgy" to pass along to the downstream Christian movement. The highly-ritualized regimented forms of the old "liturgical faiths" is largely found rooted not in 1st century CE Apostolic or Jewish praxis but was a 'professional clerical' effort solidifying in the era of Emperor-supported Christianity.

I honestly don’t know if this is of any use to you, but you may find other clues elsewhere in the Judaism Stack Exchange site.