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Advocates of Natural Law aver that knowledge of Morals are inherent in mankind, and that the "Conscience" in man causes him to adhere to them, with guilt feelings when disobeyed.

But are these morals based on, or "flowing from", Absolute Values; or do "mores and folk ways" of a society trump them? And whence the "list" of Absolute Values? How are they discovered? Is God behind the revelation of them...to those who sincerely care to follow them?

Or is man at a quandary until Revealed Law is given?

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    Can you clarify the meaning of "absolute value"? AFAIK it's not a common Reformed theology term. If you could provide a reference for the meaning of it, then it would be easier to answer your question. Commented Sep 8 at 4:06
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    Secondly, AFAIK, standard Reformed systematic theology recognizes natural law operating in the conscience and interpret the revealed law (RL) as a more explicit affirmation of it, PLUS (of course) revealed knowledge about the character of the God who put that NL in the conscience in the first place, so there is a common origin of NL, RL, and God's character in God himself. Then the doctrine of depravity requires post-Fall man to prioritize revealed law over reason's corruption of what's in the natural law. Given that standard ST presentation, can you clarify what's the problem? Commented Sep 8 at 4:10
  • @ Grateful Disciple - Thank you for your response! Consider: If all that can be drawn from Natural Law are "mores and folkways"---without reference to Moral Absolutes---then any society can make up its own moral system (a type of Idolatry), and morals can become "relativistic." Relativism has never been seen to be a sure and solid foundation for any society that desires civility. What do you think? But if Moral Absolutes exist then there is a North Star, a point of reference for all conduct.
    – ray grant
    Commented Sep 9 at 22:26
  • I'm just too busy to write an answer. Plus your response to my answer a few days ago, I'll try writing an answer maybe next week. Commented Sep 9 at 23:01

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Reformed theology does not use that phrase, "Natural Law" but this is what it says about "the light of nature, and the works of creation and providence", which may be the closest to what is being asked about here. I quote from a Reformed book for study classes examining the Westminster Confession of Faith. Its first chapter deals with the Holy Scriptures, and what this reveals to humanity about God, compared with the limited understanding given through 'nature'. 1.1 of the Confession teaches us:

"(1) that God reveals himself in two distinct ways to man: in nature and in Scripture, (2) that no man can evade constant confrontation by that which reveals the living and true God (even without Scripture), (3) that all men are without excuse for their ignorant and sinful condition, and (4) that Scripture is necessary for true and saving knowledge of God because therein alone is revealed God's redemptive provision.

It has long been the habit among Christians (even of Reformed persuasion) to speak of the insufficiency of natural revelation, as if there were something defective in the revelation it makes of God. This may be seen in the traditional use of the 'theistic proofs.'" The Westminster Confession of Faith for Study Classes, page 1, G.I. Williamson, Presbyterian and Reformed Publishing, 1964

I will not go further into that last point, but extract further bits relevant to the actual question here. Suffice to say that it shows how in the scheme of those 'theistic proofs'

"...the creature fixes the terms under which God must present his credentials... What is wrong with such an approach? Simply this: every fact (and the sum total of all facts) proves the existence of the God of the Bible. ...'The heavens declare the glory of God; and the firmament sheweth his handiwork... There is no speech nor language where their voice is not heard' (Ps. 19:1,3)...

Man was once God's true image. He alone among the creatures could think thoughts of his Creator... Nature revealed all that Adam needed for a right knowledge of the nature of God, and the world. But how could Adam know the will or purpose of God? And how could he know what his own will and purpose ought to be? The answer is: only by special (word) revelation..." [Ibid. pp. 1-2]

It then shows how the sinless Adam, being the image of God, was wholly dependent on God, but when striking out on a course of disobedient independence, violated that dependent relationship:

"He is metaphysically God's image, although he is ethically God's likeness no longer. Man's determination to be independent of God is doomed to frustration, and he is clearly and constantly reminded of this through natural revelation. Natural revelation never ceases to declare to sinful man the fact that the true God is, and that man's very existence is wholly dependent upon God. In order to continue in rebellion against God, therefore, a man can only lie to himself about the situation. He must suppress the truth in unrighteousness (Rom. 1:20). But this suppression of the truth (whereby sinful men refuse to know either themselves or the true God aright) is wholly due to sin, and not in any way due to an insufficiency or defect in natural revelation." [Ibid. p. 2. Emphasis mine.]

That section concludes by showing that "Only the gospel can supplement natural revelation" so as to disclose God's means of dealing with our enmity, and to make man once more a willing subject of the will of God. Natural revelation (or what is called here in this question 'Natural Law') can never achieve what only God does through his revealed word (in the Bible.) This answers the final question.

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    This lecture is a good companion, with the first part (historical reflections) concludes that natural law IS intimately woven into the Westminster Standards. The second part explores what kind of Natural Law is Biblical. Commented Sep 12 at 0:00
  • @GratefulDisciple Thank you for that. We are basically agreed; I just found the OPs use of the phrase confusing as I had not come across it in my limited reading of reformed theology. The source I quoted did not use it. I hope you can provide your own answer, in time. And it certainly takes a lot of time to post comprehensive answers, with quotes!
    – Anne
    Commented Sep 12 at 9:16

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