Timeline for According to Reformed Theology, is Natural Law based on the recognition of Absolute Values?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
6 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Sep 9 at 23:01 | comment | added | GratefulDisciple | I'm just too busy to write an answer. Plus your response to my answer a few days ago, I'll try writing an answer maybe next week. | |
| Sep 9 at 22:26 | comment | added | ray grant | @ Grateful Disciple - Thank you for your response! Consider: If all that can be drawn from Natural Law are "mores and folkways"---without reference to Moral Absolutes---then any society can make up its own moral system (a type of Idolatry), and morals can become "relativistic." Relativism has never been seen to be a sure and solid foundation for any society that desires civility. What do you think? But if Moral Absolutes exist then there is a North Star, a point of reference for all conduct. | |
| Sep 8 at 6:39 | answer | added | Anne | timeline score: 3 | |
| Sep 8 at 4:10 | comment | added | GratefulDisciple | Secondly, AFAIK, standard Reformed systematic theology recognizes natural law operating in the conscience and interpret the revealed law (RL) as a more explicit affirmation of it, PLUS (of course) revealed knowledge about the character of the God who put that NL in the conscience in the first place, so there is a common origin of NL, RL, and God's character in God himself. Then the doctrine of depravity requires post-Fall man to prioritize revealed law over reason's corruption of what's in the natural law. Given that standard ST presentation, can you clarify what's the problem? | |
| Sep 8 at 4:06 | comment | added | GratefulDisciple | Can you clarify the meaning of "absolute value"? AFAIK it's not a common Reformed theology term. If you could provide a reference for the meaning of it, then it would be easier to answer your question. | |
| Sep 8 at 0:06 | history | asked | ray grant | CC BY-SA 4.0 |