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curiousdannii ♦
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user77014
user77014

Trinitarian Christianity and other major denominations contend that Jesus was fully man and fully God at the same time. Did Jesus in his human nature, know that he had another nature (as "God the son") inside of him or that he had two "natures"? If so, why was it that when the fully man Jesus prayed, he didn't pray to his divine nature but prayed to "the father"? Did Jesus the(the man) take advantage of his "God side/nature" in order to have power to perform the miracles that he performed?

This being my first question, forgive if I make mistakes.

Trinitarian Christianity and other major denominations contend that Jesus was fully man and fully God at the same time. Did Jesus in his human nature, know that he had another nature (as "God the son") inside of him or that he had two "natures"? If so, why was it that when the fully man Jesus prayed, he didn't pray to his divine nature but prayed to "the father"? Did Jesus the man take advantage of his "God side/nature" in order to have power to perform the miracles that he performed?

This being my first question, forgive if I make mistakes.

Trinitarian Christianity and other major denominations contend that Jesus was fully man and fully God at the same time. Did Jesus in his human nature, know that he had another nature (as "God the son") inside of him or that he had two "natures"? If so, why was it that when the fully man Jesus prayed, he didn't pray to his divine nature but prayed to "the father"? Did Jesus (the man) take advantage of his "God side/nature" in order to have power to perform the miracles that he performed?

This being my first question, forgive if I make mistakes.

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user77014
user77014

Trinitarian Christianity says Jesus was fully God and Fully man. Did Jesus (the man) know this to be the case?

Trinitarian Christianity and other major denominations contend that Jesus was fully man and fully God at the same time. Did Jesus in his human nature, know that he had another nature (as "God the son") inside of him or that he had two "natures"? If so, why was it that when the fully man Jesus prayed, he didn't pray to his divine nature but prayed to "the father"? Did Jesus the man take advantage of his "God side/nature" in order to have power to perform the miracles that he performed?

This being my first question, forgive if I make mistakes.