It would seem you are not in fact asking why Christ's death did not atone for original sin (Catholics believe it did), but rather why that atonement does not instantaneously apply to all men. This is a complex theological question that I am underqualified to answer, but I will attempt to do so.
First, let me ask you a related question: Why do Catholics and Protestants not believe that Christ's atonement instantaneously applies to all the personal sin of all men? Rather, they believe that men must take some action (typically confessing and believing) before that atonement is applied to them.
You can see that, though we all believe that Christ's atonement is sufficient for all people, neither Catholics nor most Protestants believe that Christ's atonement is automatically applied to all people. Instead, action must be taken. In the case of infant baptism (practiced not only by Catholics, but also by many Protestants), the action is that of the parent, taken on behalf of the child, and along with a commitment to raise their child in the faith.
Interestingly enough, many Protestants who reject infant baptism also believe that original sin is present in people until either repentance or baptism, they just also believe that parents cannot act on behalf of a child in this matter.
Hope that helps!