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The Lord Jesus said, "He that is without sin may throw the first stone." Since all of the accusers went away beginning with the oldest, does that imply that the scribes and pharisees (accusers) guilty of the specific sin of Adultery / fornication?

If there be any of you who is without sin, without sin of this nature, that has not some time or other been guilty of fornication or adultery, let him cast the first stone at her.

Or, does Jesus mean in that instance that only he who has no sin at all, may throw the first stone?

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    Sin is sin, all sins lead to death, and So it does not matter if whether they had committed only the sins you noted. James the younger brother of Jesus gave us guidance in this area. >James 2:10 and 11 For whosoever shall keep the whole law, and yet offend in one point, he is guilty of all. For he that said, Do not commit adultery, said also, Do not kill. Now if thou commit no adultery, yet if thou kill, thou art become a transgressor of the law. – BYE Sep 26 '17 at 12:03
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    @BYE I don't think the scribes and pharisees had the book of James. – 4castle Sep 26 '17 at 12:59
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    @4castle it is truth even if the scribes and the pharisees didn't have the book of James – A Child of God Sep 26 '17 at 13:59
  • @AChildofGod What I mean is, the scribes and pharisees didn't know the truth, so they wouldn't have used the book of James in making the decision to stone the woman. If I understand the question correctly, it's asking about how the scribes and pharisees would have interpreted what Jesus said. – 4castle Sep 26 '17 at 17:16
  • @4castle I don't think James just assimilated that. It was true when Moses wrote the law as well as when God ejected Adam and Eve from the Garden of Eden. Their being the only people on Earth it is quite doubtful they committed adultery, and yet their punishment was no less than what almost befell the woman. – BYE Sep 27 '17 at 11:32
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The phrase "he that is without sin" is a translation of a single Greek word, anamartetos, which means sinless or faultless or without flaw.

It does not refer only to fornication, Jesus is effectively saying let the perfect one among you throw the first stone.

What happened next is that the scribes and pharisees went away. It is not clear whether they ever had any intention of stoning the woman in the first place. The reason they brought her to Jesus was to test Him, to see what reply He would give. If He said she should not be stoned they could accuse Him of going against the law, but if He said she should be stoned He would lose His reputation for gentleness. St Augustine, in Tractate 33 on St John's gospel said

if he shall approve her being stoned, he will not show his gentleness; if he consent to let her go, he will not keep righteousness. But, say they, that he may not lose the reputation of gentleness, for which he has become an object of love to the people, without doubt he will say that she must be let go. Hence we find an opportunity of accusing him, and we charge him as being a transgressor of the law: saying to him, You are an enemy to the law; you answer against Moses, nay, against Him who gave the law through Moses;

So Jesus in allowing he who is without sin to cast the first stone meant he who was perfect, not simply anyone who has never committed adultery or fornication. In going away the scribes and pharisees were not making a public admission of adultery - if that had been Christ's meaning the result could have been different.

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