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The name of the LORD is sacred and to be given to God alone. This is seen in Isaiah 42:8:

“I am the LORD; that is my name; my glory I give to no other, nor my praise to carved idols.” ‭‭‬(‭ESV‬‬)

Along with Psalm 148:13:

Let them praise the name of the Lord, for his name alone is exalted; his majesty is above earth and heaven. (ESV)

However, in Philippians 2:9 we read that:

Therefore God has highly exalted him and bestowed on him the name that is above every name, (ESV)

How can Jesus receive the name above every other name unless he already is God?

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  • There was a fine answer here but now it’s gone!
    – Kristopher
    Commented Jun 14 at 2:12
  • @007 the answer was pretty clearly written with ChatGPT. Also it didn’t really answer the question.
    – Luke Hill
    Commented Jun 15 at 14:55
  • Well now that you have said that I would like to see it again. What tios off the reader that AI is used?
    – Kristopher
    Commented Jun 15 at 16:30
  • @007 the formatting and type of language used.
    – Luke Hill
    Commented Jun 15 at 21:01

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In Philippians 2:9 we read that:

Therefore God has highly exalted him and bestowed on him the name that is above every name, (ESV)

How can Jesus receive the name above every other name unless he already is God?

Carefully reading Philippians 2:9 and it's context helps - Who exalted Jesus and when?

God did exalt Jesus - the same God quoted in the OP who said:

"I am Yahweh, that is My name; I will not give My glory to another, Nor My praise to graven images." (Isaiah 42:8 LSB)

The immediate context of Isaiah 42 clearly shows that Yahweh talks to idolaters, Israelites praying to false Gods. He says that He won't share His glory with idols.

The same God (Yahweh) is described by the Psalmist in the 148th Psalm when it says:

"Let them praise the name of Yahweh, For His name alone is set on high; His splendor is above earth and heaven." (Psalm 148:13 LSB)

This Psalm was written over 1000 years before Jesus' birth, and from a Jewish monotheistic (God is One) viewpoint. It does NOT say Yahweh's splendor will ALWAYS BE above earth and heaven, nor that His name alone will ALWAYS BE set on high.

This Almighty God Yahweh, has highly exalted Jesus after the latter having "humbled Himself by becoming obedient to the point of death, even death on a cross" (Philippians 2:8)

After Christ's resurrection in heaven, he was exalted by Almighty God Yahweh, and was given a name above every other name. Philippians 2:10 shows that Jesus didn't receive another name - the name was still Jesus - his authority changed.

According to Vine’s Expository Dictionary of New Testament Words, the Greek word translated “name” can refer to “all that a name implies, of authority, character, rank, majesty, power, [and] excellence.”

But if Jesus were equal to God before he died and God later exalted him to a higher position, wouldn’t that put Jesus above God? How could anyone be superior to God?

Jesus being exalted to a place of High Authority can only mean that He didn't have it before. If Jesus was God, this exalted position would contribute to His own glory alone. But that is not the case, as Philippians 2:10 says:

" EVERY TONGUE WILL CONFESS that Jesus Christ is LORD, to the glory of God the Father."

The Father, God Almighty Yahweh is the ultimate beneficiary. So one could still say that He holds true to His words in Isaiah 42:8: "I will not give My glory to another". Jesus' exalted position given to him by Yahweh, will ultimately only glorify the One who made it all possible: Almighty God the Father Yahweh!

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    But if Jesus were equal to God before he died and God later exalted him to a higher position, wouldn’t that put Jesus above God? How could anyone be superior to God? Excellent!!
    – Kristopher
    Commented Aug 19 at 15:24

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