0

In the beginning of the gospel of John it is written:

In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. He was with God in the beginning. Through him all things were made; without him nothing was made that has been made.

A similar idea of a word being an expression of a person, and appearing in the flesh in this case, is also stated in Colossians 2:6:

For in Christ all the fullness of the Deity lives in bodily form.

Does this actually indicate that the doctrine of the divine nature of Christ, is actually just an exposition on the theology of Moses? If so, how does John the draw this as a logical construct from Genesis?

2
  • 2
    "Genesis" is mentioned in the title and again at the very end of the question, but nowhere in between. So I don't see what sort of connection you seek between Genesis and the rest of the question. Commented Apr 30 at 16:35
  • @AndreasBlass- I guess why did Moses bring out the word as an ‘identify’ existing before creation and what does this entity ‘the word’ logically mean if it was preexistent? Can the word be separated from God? If it his expression? Is Gods expression just himself or different? Why did Moses speak this way? Why does John speak in such the same way?
    – Mike
    Commented May 1 at 1:29

1 Answer 1

2

In both the Genesis "beginning" and John's "beginning" start out the same way. The definite article has been supplied. The actual Greek is "en arech--that is, "in beginning."

The "Word of God" thus was there before the creation of the space-mass-time universe, so that John's "beginning" even antecedes the Genesis "beginning," extending without an initial beginning into eternity past, before even time was created. Note also John 17:24, where Jesus, in His humanity acknowledged that He was with the Father, and loved by the Father, "before the foundation of the world."

John 1:2, with God. The "Word of God" (i.e., Jesus Christ) was God, yet also "with God." Thus God is both personal and plural (in a uni-plural) sense only in terms of the doctrine of the Trinity).

John 1:3 made by Him. This is an emphatic statement declaring that Jesus Christ, BEFORE His incarnation, had made everything in the universe. He is the God of Genesis 11:1, the God of all creation. Furthermore, note that "all things were made." They are not now being made, as the concept of evolution requires.

This is all backed up by Colossians 1:16; Hebrews 1:2-3; Hebrews 1:10 and other verses dealing with creation like Revelation 3:14.

So, both verses, Genesis 1:1 and John 1:1 start out the same way. Yet the main thought in Genesis 1:1 is on WHAT HAPPEND "in the beginning," and in John 1:1 the emphasis is on WHO WAS THERE in the beginning. AS a side note, and strictly speaking the Godhead was involved because all of God/Deity is mentioned at Genesis 1:1. But specifically speaking, we are introduced to the person of the Holy Spirit at Genesis 1:2. (Most of this information came from the "Institue Of Creation Research.)

1
  • +1 It is interesting that John does seems to fix on the word as something existing before all creation making the word not created in Genesis and therefore eternal according to Moses, otherwise why mention this ‘word’ that exists ‘in the beginning’ before anything is created? Moses could have just said God created the light, God created xxx, etc.
    – Mike
    Commented May 1 at 1:25

You must log in to answer this question.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .