0

The word for 'weakness' (astheneo) of the flesh (Rom.8:3), or the 'infirmity' (astheneo) of the flesh (Rom.6:19) seems to indicate that the inclination to sin is in our fallen flesh nature and not from the concept of 'original sin'

A few examples: "The spirit is willing, but the flesh is 'weak' (astheneo)" (Matt.26:41). "For what the law could not do in that it was 'weak' (astheneo) through the flesh, God sent His own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh, and for sin condemned sin in the flesh." (Rom.8:3). "For we have not a high priest who is unable to sympathize with our 'weaknesses' (astheneo), but one who in every respect has been tempted as we are, yet without sinning."(Heb.4:15)

Improve this question
2
  • If a question is going to mention "the concept of 'original sin'", it should explicitly define what is meant by that term. Otherwise, people will misinterpret what it is actually asking about. In particular, it should say whether it refers to the Catholic doctrine ("the hereditary stain with which we are born on account of our origin or descent from Adam) which makes all people bear Adam's guilt (and hence the need for the Immaculate Conception, so this guilt wouldn't be passed on to Jesus).
    – Ray Butterworth
    Commented Oct 2 at 12:59
  • Let us just say that it represents both the Catholic concept of original sin, which means that all of humanity are born into sin, and through baptism that 'original sin' from Adam and Eve is forgiven. It also represents a Protestant concept of original sin which makes it impossible for Jesus to have a sinful nature like ours, since he did not have a human father.
    – John
    Commented Oct 2 at 19:07

2 Answers 2

Reset to default
0

The concept of original sin is to eat (mentally consume) the knowledge of good & evil. Genesis 2.15 explains:

The Lord God took the man and put him in the Garden of Eden to work it and take care of it. And the Lord God commanded the man, “You are free to eat from any tree in the garden; but you must not eat from the tree of the knowledge of good and evil, for when you eat from it you will certainly die.”

We know Adam & Eve did not physically die when they ate the fruit. Their "death" was a spiritual death. Adam, Eve, Cain & Abel began to have arguments & conflicts over their differing opinions of what was good vs evil, which at its extreme lead to Cain murdering Abel.

Therefore original sin is provable because every act of sin is based on a view of something being 'good' or 'evil'. A person steals or commits adultery because they believe the object of their lust is 'good' or 'desirable'. A person murders because they believe another person is 'evil'.

The flesh itself does not sin. Only the mind sins. James 1.13 says:

When tempted, no one should say, “God is tempting me.” For God cannot be tempted by evil, nor does he tempt anyone; but each person is tempted when they are dragged away by their own evil desire and enticed. Then, after desire has conceived, it gives birth to sin; and sin, when it is full-grown, gives birth to death.

While not Biblical, the The Apocryphon of James provides a good explanation:

For without the soul, the body does not sin, just as the soul is not saved without the spirit. But if the soul is saved (when it is) without evil, and the spirit is also saved, then the body becomes free from sin. For it is the spirit that raises the soul, but the body that kills it; that is, it is it (the soul) which kills itself.

Improve this answer
0

It first of all depends on what is meant by "original sin"

"Original Sin" can be taken to mean that the sin of Adam and Eve resulted in their descendants being denied access to the tree of life and thus subject to fate of death, which is literally what happened in Genesis.

But some take "Original Sin" to mean that God reckons people guilty of the sins of their ancestors, which I would argue is contrary to justice and thus contrary to God's nature as "God is just" 2Th 1:6 and God says, "fathers shall not be put to death for their children, nor children put to death for their fathers; each is to die for his own sin." Deuteronomy 24:16 So I would discard that concept as nonsense.

A third is the "Original Sin" refers to the passing on of the sinful nature, which is the primary source of temptation and the reason why sin is so characteristic of the human condition. Wouldn't that have happened anyhow? It was evident that Adam and Eve had a sinful nature, given the description of their being tempted to sin. The sinful nature is simply part of what constitutes humanity from it very inception.

Thus I would opt for the first. As for the second part of Romans 5, I would say it's a matter of interpretation, being an analogy and his main repeated thought being that death resulted from Adam's sin, which fits into the first interpretation.

Improve this answer

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .