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As per Acts 21:24, Paul keeps the law. If Paul keeps the law, why does he say that he is not under the law in 1 Corinthians 20-21? If he is not under the law, then why did he perform the nazirite vow in Acts 21? I am confused

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  • Paul was a Jew by birth (culture), but most of his ministry was to non-Jews. Its not at all inconsistent to assert that people don't have to follow rules that he personally felt like following. I feel much better if I go to services where we sing the Gloria Patri every Sunday. That doesn't mean I feel like you must do that to follow Jesus.
    – T.E.D.
    Commented Oct 1 at 19:23

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1 Corinthians 9:19–23:

Verse NLT Comment
19 Even though I am a free man with no master, I have become a slave to all people to bring many to Christ. In order to preach the Gospel, Paul changes his behaviour to match his audience.
20 When I was with the Jews, I lived like a Jew to bring the Jews to Christ. When I was with those who follow the Jewish law, I too lived under that law. Even though I am not subject to the law, I did this so I could bring to Christ those who are under the law. As a Christian, Paul is no longer part of God's physical covenant with Israel. But when he is taking to Jews, he reverts back to following the Israelite laws.
21 When I am with the Gentiles who do not follow the Jewish law, I too live apart from that law so I can bring them to Christ. But I do not ignore the law of God; I obey the law of Christ. When he is with non-Jews, he no longer follows the Israelite laws. But he does still follow God's laws, those that are for all mankind and not specific to the Covenants God made with Abraham and later with the Israelites.
22 When I am with those who are weak, I share their weakness, for I want to bring the weak to Christ. Yes, I try to find common ground with everyone, doing everything I can to save some. When Paul is with with weak people, he doesn't flaunt his strength. He wants his audience to identify with him.
23 I do everything to spread the Good News and share in its blessings. He does all this, not to be deceptive, but to make his audience more receptive to his message.

The important key, whose misunderstanding is the reason for this question, is what is meant by "Jewish law".

God made several covenants at various times throughout history.

An answer from @Dottard contains an appendix listing these Bible Covenants. In particular:

    1. Israelite Covenant, for running the Israelite society (e.g. penalties for theft).
    1. Levitical Covenant, for running the priesthood (e.g. animal sacrifices).

These are what Paul is referring to as "Jewish Law", since those covenants were with the Israelites only, not with all mankind. It is most definitely the case that he is not referring to God's moral laws for all mankind, as summarized in the Ten Commandments. These laws are what Paul refers to as the "law of God" or the "law of Christ".

In fact, in verse 21, after saying the he isn't subject to the Jewish law, to avoid any misunderstanding, he adds a disclaimer that he does still follow God's laws: "But I do not ignore the law of God".

why does [Paul] say that he is not under the law in 1 Corinthians 20-21?

He doesn't. He says he is not under the laws of the covenants that God made specifically with Israel and the Levites.

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  • You can not dissect the law into smaller, separate modules. As Jacob tells us in his letter, James 2:10, the law is one unit. It is either done away with as a whole or not. The law of Christ, also called the royal law, are not the ten commandments but love. Commented Sep 30 at 21:57
  • 8 Let no debt remain outstanding, except the continuing debt to love one another, for whoever loves others has fulfilled the law. 9 The commandments, “You shall not commit adultery,” “You shall not murder,” “You shall not steal,” “You shall not covet,” a and whatever other command there may be, are summed up in this one command: “Love your neighbor as yourself.” 10 Love does no harm to a neighbor. Therefore love is the fulfillment of the law. (Romans 13) Commented Sep 30 at 21:57
  • 14 For the entire law is fulfilled in keeping this one command: “Love your neighbor as yourself.” (Galatians 5) Commented Sep 30 at 21:58
  • @ארקדיוס says "You can not dissect the law into smaller, separate modules." — But isn't that exactly what Paul did in verse 20: "I too live apart from that law … But I do not ignore the law of God"? Commented Sep 30 at 22:56
  • @ארקדיוס is correct. It is out of love for our neighbor, not because we are bound to. Rom 13:8-10 "Owe no man any thing, but to love one another: for he that loveth another hath fulfilled the law. 9 For this, Thou shalt not commit adultery, Thou shalt not kill, Thou shalt not steal, Thou shalt not bear false witness, Thou shalt not covet; and if there be any other commandment, it is briefly comprehended in this saying, namely, Thou shalt love thy neighbour as thyself. 10 Love worketh no ill to his neighbour: therefore love is the fulfilling of the law." We are under grace, not law (Rom 6:14). Commented Oct 1 at 9:33
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It is the very reason that Paul also circumcised Timothy (for the purpose of entering the synagogues), with hopes that he might "save some" (below). It was by request of James and the elders (Acts 21:24) that Paul should "thou thyself also walkest orderly" towards the four men that had a vow. He had to do these things just to have the opportunity to present the gospel of God's grace to them (Jews) who were still "under the Law".

1 Corinthians 9:19-22

For though I be free from all men, yet have I made myself servant unto all, that I might gain the more. 20 And unto the Jews I became as a Jew, that I might gain the Jews; to them that are under the law, as under the law, that I might gain them that are under the law; 21 To them that are without law, as without law, (being not without law to God, but under the law to Christ,) that I might gain them that are without law. 22 To the weak became I as weak, that I might gain the weak: I am made all things to all men, that I might by all means save some.

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    Good answer my friend. 1+ Commented Sep 30 at 22:00
  • @ארקדיוס Thanks very much friend!! Commented Sep 30 at 22:14
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He isn't "under the law" as a means of attaining righteousness with God. In fact he says, "All who rely on observing the law are under a curse" Gal 2:10 "know that a man is not justified by observing the law, but by faith in Jesus Christ. So we, too, have put our faith in Christ Jesus that we may be justified by faith in Christ and not by observing the law, because by observing the law no one will be justified." Gal 2:16

As a Christian he views keeping of the law as optional, a cultural adaptation, sort of a "when in Rome do as the Romans do". To the Jews I became like a Jew, to win the Jews. To those under the law I became like one under the law (though I myself am not under the law), so as to win those under the law. 1Cor 9:20

Consider his view of Sabbath observance for example he says, "One man considers one day more sacred than another; another man considers every day alike. Each one should be fully convinced in his own mind." Rom 14:5 "Therefore do not let anyone judge you by what you eat or drink, or with regard to a religious festival, a New Moon celebration or a Sabbath day. These are a shadow of the things that were to come; the reality, however, is found in Christ." Col 2:16,17

Likewise consider his view of the dietary restrictions of the Law of Moses he says, "Eat anything sold in the meat market without raising questions of conscience, for, "The earth is the Lord’s, and everything in it." 1Cor 10:25,26

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