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First of all: what I mean here by “Jew” is nationality/race and not religion. The question of whether Jesus was a Jew therefore means whether Jesus was an Israeli, i.e. a descendant of Jacob/Israel. The focus here is not on whether Jesus was a Jew from a religious point of view, i.e. whether he was a follower of Judaism.

Was Jesus a Jew at all? He had no Jewish father, he is not from Jewish sperm. According to the Bible, a child inherits the nationality from the father. Two examples: 1. The wife of Joseph was a Gentile (Egyptian), and with her he made two children, Ephraim and Manasseh. Although their mother was a Gentile, they are still called Israelis because their father was an Israeli. They inherited their father's nationality. 2. Moses allowed the men of Israel to take Gentile women, but he didn't allow them to take Gentile men for Israeli women.

Since Jesus did not come out of Jewish sperm, he can't be a Jew by nationality. It's wrong to say that Jesus was a "half-Jew" because his mother was a Jew. In the Bible, there is no such thing like "half". You are what your father is. If your father is Italian and your mother is Spanish, then you are Italian. You are not half-italian and half-spanish. You are what your father is because out of his sperm you came.

However, if someone wants to claim that the nationality goes from mother to child, then he must agree that Ephraim and Manasseh were not Israelis but Egyptians since their mother was Egyptian. He must also agree that Obed was not an Israeli but a Moabite since his mother Ruth was a Moabite. If he does not agree, then his position is hypocritical.

Since Jesus has no human father, he cannot biologically belong to any nationality. What does this mean now?

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  • related: christianity.stackexchange.com/q/54224/22319
    – depperm
    Commented Jul 16 at 13:36
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    In Jewish religious law you are a jew if your mother is a jew. Your father is not important. I don't know since when this is the dominating view.
    – K-HB
    Commented Jul 16 at 13:46
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    "what I mean here by “Jew” is nationality and not religion" — No, I think you mean "race". In modern terms, "nationality" is the country that issues your passport. ¶ "Israeli" — No, you mean "Israelite". The word "Israeli" refers to a citizen of the modern country of Israel (today, over two million Israeli citizens are racially Arabs, some of whom are Christian by religion — three different concepts). Commented Jul 16 at 13:53
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2 Answers 2

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Was Jesus a Jew at all?

John 4:9 describes a stranger's reaction on meeting Jesus: "Then saith the woman of Samaria unto him, How is it that thou, being a Jew, askest drink of me, which am a woman of Samaria? for the Jews have no dealings with the Samaritans.".
Clearly anyone's first impression of Jesus would be that he was a Jew.

Nationality:

  • Galilee was mentioned 6 times in the Hebrew scriptures (OT), and 70 times in the Greek scriptures (NT).
  • Jesus was born in Galilee, and was referred to as a Galilean.
  • At that time, Galilee was ruled by the Roman Empire.
  • Unlike Paul, Jesus did not have Roman citizenship.
  • Depending upon circumstances, Galilee was considered separate from Judea, or lumped together with it as part of Palestine or the Levant.

Ethnicity (culture):

  • The Judeans referred to him as "Jesus of Nazareth".
  • Having grown up in Galilee, Jesus culture would have been slightly different (e.g. more Greek influence) from those that grew up in Judea, but to a Roman or other outsider their cultures would have been indistinguishable.

Race:

  • Jesus's mother was Jewish (see Why Is Jewishness Matrilineal? - Chabad.org).
  • Paul states "For it is evident that our Lord sprang out of Juda" in Hebrews 7:14.
  • Jesus could escape from others by passing through a crowd (e.g. Luke 4:30), so obviously he must have looked like an ordinary Jew of the time.

Religion:

  • Jesus was raised in Judaism, as shown by Luke 2:27 ("the parents brought in the child Jesus, to do for him after the custom of the law,") and 2:42 ("And when he was twelve years old, they went up to Jerusalem after the custom of the feast.").
  • Jesus continued practicing Judaism, per Luke 4:16 ("as his custom was, he went into the synagogue on the sabbath day, and stood up for to read").
  • The Pharisees criticized Jesus because they (incorrectly) thought he violated God's commandments, something they wouldn't have cared about if he hadn't been Jewish.
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  • "Depending upon circumstances, Galilee was considered separate from Judea, or lumped together with it as part of Palestine or the Levant." Was anyone calling it Palestine back then? I was under the impression that the name originated well after Jesus' death, when the Romans renamed the territory of Judea ("home of the Jews") to Palestina ("home of the Philistines") to spite the Jews, essentially stating that their ancient enemies, though long extinct by this point, still had a better claim to their home than they did.
    – Mason Wheeler
    Commented Jul 16 at 16:36
  • According to the Bible, the inheritance of race/nationality goes from father to child, not from mother to child. Since Jesus has no Jewish father, he can't be a biological Jew/Israeli. If you say that the inheritance of race goes from mother to child then according to you, Manasseh and Ephraim weren't Jews/Israelis but Egyptians because their mother was an Egyptian.
    – Jlem
    Commented Jul 16 at 16:41
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    @Jlem You are attempting to inflict natural, human and earthly rules on a supernatural, Divine and heavenly event. None of that kind of logic applies in this unique event.
    – Nigel J
    Commented Jul 16 at 19:09
  • @MasonWheeler, see Timeline of the name Palestine - Wikipedia: "The term Palestine first appeared in the 5th century BCE when the ancient Greek historian Herodotus wrote of a "district of Syria, called Palaistinê" between Phoenicia and Egypt". Commented Jul 16 at 19:17
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    @Jlem, I've added an interesting reference for matrilineal inheritance. Things like birthrights are through the father, but Jewishness is through the mother. Children of Jewish fathers and Gentile mothers are effectively adopted into the religion/culture. Commented Jul 16 at 19:20
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First of all, there were different opinions -even in scripture - as to Christ’s origins. Only two gospels speak of the virgin birth (Matthew and Luke) while the rest of the NT is pretty silent on the matter (which is rather odd).

Paul even writes, to the contrary, that Jesus was of the seed of David (Romans 1:3). This would appear to be a rejection of the idea of the virgin birth.

Personally, the virgin birth has no baring on my faith as a Christian; I can take it or leave it.

Secondly, while you are generally correct that within scripture that the family lineage is determined by the father - there is at least one exception: if a man died, leaving no sons, it was the duty of one of his brothers to marry his wife and for any resulting son (or just the first one?) to be treated as the son of the dead man - effectively continuing his line.

In a similar scenario- though I don’t think there’s a command concerning it - when Abel was killed by Cain, Eve was given another son Seth. It is said that Seth was given to Eve in place of Abel. It is through Seth that the righteous line continues vs the cursed line of Cain.

So there is precedent for a near relative dedicating a child to a lost loved one with no male descendants in order to preserve their line - so it wasn’t always the biological father’s name being passed along. Nevertheless it has to be a near relative, and I’ve not seen anyone make a good argument of how these rightly apply to Christ in the event of a virgin birth.

Third, even if Christ was not of the seed of David, yet he was adopted into the Davidic line through Joseph. Thus, through adoption he was indeed a son of David and thus a Jew. He was circumcised as prescribed by the Law and he observed the Law. And even as adults, anyone can convert to Judaism (but without a Jewish father they wouldn’t be part of one of the twelve tribes).

There is some beauty in this idea of him being adopted - for we ourselves are said to be adopted by God.

It is also worth noting that the 3 Synoptic Gospels argue against the interpretation that Christ was to be the son of David (but only 2 present the virgin birth). Each has a passage similar to this:

Mark 12:35-37 And Jesus responded and began saying, as He taught in the temple area, “How is it that the scribes say that the [t]Christ is the son of David? 36 David himself said [u]in the Holy Spirit,

‘The Lord said to my Lord, “Sit at My right hand, Until I put Your enemies under Your feet.”’ 37 David himself calls Him ‘Lord’; so in what sense is He his son?” And the large crowd [v]enjoyed listening to Him.

Of course, all three Gospels also identify him as a son of David; which on the surface appears somewhat contradictory. Why question that the Messiah was a son of David if they indeed maintained that the Messiah was a son of David? It’s an interesting question. But ultimately we don’t have the ability to go back and verify claimed lineages one way or the other and whichever answer you prefer it must be taken on faith.

Finally, it is worth noting that even today different Jewish communities have different standards for determining one’s Jewishness by birth. Some only consider the paternal lineage, some only consider the maternal lineage, and others accept either lineage as a basis for one being born Jewish. But I agree that biblically the lineage is paternal.

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  • 'Come' . . . 'of seed of David' is the literal wording. He is 'come of woman'. You are mistranslating, sir.
    – Nigel J
    Commented Jul 16 at 19:06
  • Why do you claim that Mark 12:35–37 "argue against the interpretation that Christ was to be the son of David"? Commented Jul 16 at 19:43
  • There is actually a rule in the Torah that says that if an Israeli woman has no brothers, she can transfer her father's inheritance to her son. I strongly suspect that Mary had no brothers and therefore Jesus became the heir through this rule. Jesus is not biologically an Israeli, because he has no Jewish father, but he could still be an Israeli through this rule.
    – Jlem
    Commented Jul 16 at 20:26
  • @NigelJ that he is of the seed of David isn’t my translation. Example in the NKJV it is rendered: “concerning His Son Jesus Christ our Lord, who [a]was born of the seed of David according to the flesh,” Commented Jul 16 at 20:33
  • @RayButterworth just read it: Jesus is questioning why they assert that the Messiah must be a son of David and provides scripture against it. A father would not refer to his son as “Lord.” It is the son who must honor the father in Mosaic Law - not the other way around. Commented Jul 16 at 20:36

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