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LOOKING FOR AN OVERVIEW FROM ALL CHRISTIAN POSITIONS. THANK YOU.

If the Day of the Lord differs from the Day of Jesus Christ based on contextual distinctions (judgment vs. redemption), wouldn’t the same logic lend itself to suggest that titles like the Son of Man, Son of God, and Lamb of God refer to entirely different entities or personas?

The pre-tribulational rapture perspective argues that terms like the Day of the Lord and the Day of Jesus Christ represent distinct events. From my understanding, this argument typically stems from the context of the passages within which the terms are used—the former is used in contexts of divine judgment, while the latter is associated with believers' hope and sanctification.

Day of the Lord (1 Thessalonians 5:2-3)

”For yourselves know perfectly that the day of the Lord so cometh as a thief in the night. For when they shall say, Peace and safety; then sudden destruction cometh upon them, as travail upon a woman with child; and they shall not escape.”

Day of Jesus Christ (Philippians 1:6)

”Being confident of this very thing, that he which hath begun a good work in you will perform it until the day of Jesus Christ”

Could these differing emphases simply reflect varied aspects of the same event, tailored to the audience or message being conveyed? Consider how the New Testament employs diverse titles for Jesus.

Son of Man emphasizes the humanity of Jesus (Matthew 8:20)

” And Jesus saith unto him, The foxes have holes, and the birds of the air have nests; but the Son of man hath not where to lay his head”

Son of God highlights His divinity and unique relationship to the Father (Matthew 16:16)

”Simon Peter answered and said, Thou art the Christ, the Son of the living God”

Lamb of God conveys His role as the sacrificial savior (John 1:29)

” The next day John seeth Jesus coming unto him, and saith, Behold the Lamb of God, which taketh away the sin of the world”

King of Kings displays His sovereign authority over all of creation (Revelation 17:4)

” These shall make war with the Lamb, and the Lamb shall overcome them: for he is Lord of lords, and King of kings...”

This very strategy is used throughout the Old Testament as well when God is given various names which highlight various aspects of his character and deeds he has done:

Jehovah-Jireh highlights God’s provisions when he provides a ram for Abraham (Genesis 22:14)

” And Abraham called the name of that place Jehovah-jireh: as it is said to this day, In the mount of the LORD it shall be seen”

Jehovah-Rapha displays God’s ability to heal (Exodus 15:26)

”… for I am the LORD that healeth thee.”

Jehovah-Tsidkenu emphasizes God’s righteousness (Jeremiah 23:6)

”In his days Judah shall be saved, and Israel shall dwell safely: and this is his name whereby he shall be called, The Lord Our Righteousness.“

And these lists could go on and on, but the point remains. It would seem senseless to suggest that these titles are referring to separate entities in the Old or New Testament, as the Bible is clear on there being one God and one mediator between God and men, the Man Christ Jesus (1 Timothy 2:5). Similarly, Scripture never seems to clearly indicate a distinction between these events, rather, we often see instances where both the redemption aspect (rapture) is directly tied to the destruction aspect (Christ’s judgment and wrath). Throughout Paul’s epistles to the Thessalonians we see a connection of these two events - 1 Thessalonians 4 seems to carry over into Chapter 5 without evidence of a new event being discussed. Likewise, 2 Thessalonians 1 & 2 seem to do the same, connecting relief being granted in the moment Christ also destroys the wicked. This also occurs in Matthew 24 where Jesus seems to tie destruction of the wicked in the same event as gathering his elect.

Wouldn’t it follow, then, that the Day of the Lord and the Day of Jesus Christ could very likely describe distinct facets of a singular event? The Day of the Lord might emphasize the cosmic judgment and upheaval accompanying Christ’s return, while the Day of Jesus Christ focuses on the fulfillment of believers’ salvation and reward. To argue otherwise risks imposing divisions not explicitly delineated in Scripture, much as insisting on separate entities for Jesus’ various titles would.

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    An astute question. Often distinctions are made in order to buttress a theological stance rather than gleaned from Scripture itself. +1 Commented Dec 4 at 20:24
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    @MikeBorden Thank you. I agree, it often seems the view stem from a doctrine defining one's reading of Scripture rather than one's reading of Scripture defining their doctrine. Commented Dec 4 at 20:39
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    What kind of answers are you looking for? Responses from rapture proponents? Or agreement from non-rapture-ists? A question like this can really only do one side of the debate, so it would be best to be explicit about whose answer you want.
    – curiousdannii
    Commented Dec 5 at 5:58
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    @curiousdannii I assume that they are looking for supporters to explain their understanding. gets popcorn
    – Wyrsa
    Commented Dec 5 at 9:59
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    Overview questions are okay, though personal answers still aren't allowed 🙂
    – curiousdannii
    Commented Dec 6 at 23:03

5 Answers 5

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Traditional Protestant View
A thorough study of the New Testament lends to the Traditional Protestant View of "one major Second Coming at the End of the World, but with concomitant events occurring.

Biblical Exegesis
According to basic rules of hermeneutics, the context is most important. The surrounding verses, as well as the context of the person writing, are vital. It is good to find the definition and meaning of wording by looking at the purpose of the author, as well as the surrounding circumstances in which the letter was written.

Some churches may be suffering immense persecution, and the writing would address a certain mood of perseverance. Others may simply have character issues, and different wording referring to the same goal of ultimate stability may be used. Such is the case with the various verses in this question.

Modernist View
Indeed, there has been a tendency to "separate the Second Coming" into different events separated by various periods of time. This interpretation was made popular by the dissident Plymouth Brethren group in the early 1800s (J.N. Darby, Tweedy, etc.). It was then subsequently spread via the Scofield Study Bible (1917), and his book, What do the Prophets Say? with its copious notes about the End of the World, and by Dallas Seminary professors (esp. J. Walvoord, Chafer, Ryre).

One Second Coming
But when we come to the Bible, we are told there is only one Second Coming. That is why the Coming is called "second", and not "second, third, fourth, etc."

So Christ was once offered to bear the sins of many; and unto those that look for Him shall He appear the second time without sin unto salvation. (Hebrews 9:28)

To make things perfectly clear about the End of the World, Jesus described it in Matthew 25.

When the Son of Man shall come in His glory, and all the holy angels with Him, then shall He sit upon His throne of glory,
And before Him shall be gathered all nations, and He shall separate them one from another as a shepherd divided his sheep from the goats...etc. (Matthew 25:31-32)

Jesus then described the judging and rewarding of all people. There are not two different events described here, nor is there any gaps of time, but one gathering of all people.

So even if Paul used two different names of Jesus in two different letters, there is only one event at the End of the World. In fact, nowhere do we find any of the Apostles writing, and saying, in one passage, that there are two distinct events. Dispensationalist Tim LaHaye admitted this in his book on prophesy (The Coming Storm)! You have to jump around the N.T. and pick out scattered verses and put them together like a montage or mosaic, in order to come up with a Pre-Trib. Rapture scenario, he admitted.

Just as there are many Names for the One True God, and many terms for the Christian's salvation, so it is reasonable that there would be different names for the Second Coming at the end of the world. The conclusion is valid:

Wouldn't it follow, then, that the Day of the Lord and the Day of Jesus Christ could very likely describe distinct facets of a singular event?...To argue otherwise risks imposing divisions not expressly delineated in Scripture...

Protestant Traditional View
The position of this answer highlights, therefore, the Historic Mainline Protestant doctrine of the Second Coming. And it would complement the Amillennial interpretation of Scripture, with only one great Appearing of Jesus at the end of the world, with several concomitant events. (Resurrection of saint, Judgment of sinners, Rewarding of the faithful, Opening of Heaven's gates to eternity.)

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    Straight to the point.+1 Commented Dec 5 at 0:05
  • This is now an overview question, so please edit this to clearly identify which perspective it represents.
    – curiousdannii
    Commented Dec 6 at 23:04
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The second epistle to the Thessalonians makes it very difficult to buttress a notion of two separate "second comings" of Jesus Christ.

Paul, and Silvanus, and Timotheus, unto the church of the Thessalonians in God our Father and the Lord Jesus Christ:  Grace unto you, and peace, from God our Father and the Lord Jesus Christ. We are bound to thank God always for you, brethren, as it is meet, because that your faith groweth exceedingly, and the charity of every one of you all toward each other aboundeth; So that we ourselves glory in you in the churches of God for your patience and faith in all your persecutions and tribulations that ye endure: Which is a manifest token of the righteous judgment of God, that ye may be counted worthy of the kingdom of God, for which ye also suffer: Seeing it is a righteous thing with God to recompense tribulation to them that trouble you; And to you who are troubled rest with us, when the Lord Jesus shall be revealed from heaven with his mighty angels, In flaming fire taking vengeance on them that know not God, and that obey not the gospel of our Lord Jesus Christ: Who shall be punished with everlasting destruction from the presence of the Lord, and from the glory of his power; When he shall come to be glorified in his saints, and to be admired in all them that believe (because our testimony among you was believed) in that day. Wherefore also we pray always for you, that our God would count you worthy of this calling, and fulfil all the good pleasure of his goodness, and the work of faith with power: That the name of our Lord Jesus Christ may be glorified in you, and ye in him, according to the grace of our God and the Lord Jesus Christ. - 2 Thessalonians chapter 1 (KJV)

Three born again believers (one of them an Apostle) writing to a congregation of believers in Thessalonika. In this letter they refer to a future event when the Lord Jesus shall be revealed from heaven with his mighty angels.

This single event causes two distinct effects upon two distinct groups: a recompense of tribulation to unbelievers and rest to the faithful who are troubled by them. Also further described regarding these same two groups in the same single event are punished with everlasting destruction from the presence of the Lord, and from the glory of his power; When he shall come to be glorified in his saints, and to be admired in all them that believe.

Clearly here, when Jesus comes to be glorified in His saints is when the everlasting destruction of unbelievers from His presence also occurs.

Lest anyone attempt to portray that this Apostle and his two brethren believed and taught a pre-tribulational rapture (PTR) of the Church and consequently push this event to a future, post-tribulational point beyond PTR we have verses 6-7:

Seeing it is a righteous thing with God to recompense tribulation to them that trouble you; And to you who are troubled rest with us, when the Lord Jesus shall be revealed from heaven with his mighty angels

Rest from tribulation is promised on that future day and Paul includes himself in the group who will receive that rest. Based on this it seems that PTR theology must declare: 1) that those who have already been raptured or have died and are in the presence of the Lord (2 Corinthians 5:8) are somehow not at rest from tribulation, or 2) that Paul knew that he (and whomever us includes) would be dead and with the Lord before the Thessalonian believers would be raptured.

An additional separation of events is attempted in regards to the second chapter of this same epistle:

Now we beseech you, brethren, by the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ, and by our gathering together unto him, that ye be not soon shaken in mind, or be troubled, neither by spirit, nor by word, nor by letter as from us, as that the day of Christ is at hand. - chapter 2:1-2

The "coming of our Lord" and "our gathering unto Him" are posited as a single event and distinct from the "day of Christ" in PTR: the latter being the "final" coming and the former being the rapture of the Church.

Essentially, it is supposed that Paul is saying, "We beseech you by the pre-tribulational rapture of the Church not to believe the second coming is at hand".

Not only is this difficult to perceive, coming as it does on the heels of chapter 1, but it is difficult to perceive given the two signifiers listed directly in the immediate context:

Let no man deceive you by any means: for that day shall not come, except there come a falling away first, and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition - verse 3

If, as PTR declares, Paul believed in and taught two separate and distinct "comings" of the Lord Jesus (one a secret coming to rapture the Church and the other the final coming to consummate judgement) then there are only two possibilities as the referent of "that day" concerning which Paul writes to protect them from deception:

  1. "that day" refers to the PTR. If that is the case then Paul is saying that the "falling away" and the revealing of the "man of sin (the antichrist)" must come first. In other words, Paul is listing two events which must precede the rapture. This is directly contrary to PTR which holds that there is nothing which needs to precede the rapture.

  2. "that day" refers to the final, traditional coming. If that is the case then Paul is trying to protect them from being deceived into thinking that the literal end of the world is taking place and he does so by offering as assurance from deceptive teaching the witnessing of two events that the Church will not be around to see (according to PTR).

To escape this obvious difficulty PTR interprets the "falling away" as the rapture itself. This is difficult to prove given that the only other place this exact word αποστασια (apostasia) occurs is Acts 21:21, which reads:

And they are informed of thee, that thou teachest all the Jews which are among the Gentiles to forsake Moses, saying that they ought not to circumcise their children, neither to walk after the customs.

Regardless of the use of multiple terms, it is very difficult to maintain a view of multiple and separate "second" comings of the Lord Jesus given the context of Paul's second epistle to the Thessalonians.

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    I'm inclined to agree - I see this evidently portrayed in the first epistle to the Thessalonians as well. There is no reason, apart from presuppositions, to suggest Paul is referring to a different event in Chapter 4 & 5:. Additionally, 1 Thess 5:4 "But ye, brethren, are not in darkness, that that day should overtake you as a thief" implies that believers will be in the same position (on earth) as non-believers come the Day of the Lord. Commented Dec 11 at 16:40
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    Further to this good answer, I point out in warning that "3 comings of Christ" is a teaching also taught by a late 19th century American religious group. They (correctly) agreed with orthodox Christianity in Christ first coming at his birth on Earth. Then they claimed he came a second time, invisibly, in the year 1914. Then they said he would come a third time (again, invisibly) at the still future Armageddon, when the tiny remnant of 144,000 of them would be invisibly whisked up to heaven, all the rest of them left behind to survive, hopefully, into a millennium paradise. Beware 3 comings!
    – Anne
    Commented yesterday
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Having read everything on this page (including a multitude of comments), this answer attempts to do what the o.p. states is what is being looked for, namely, "looking for a biblical defense (irrespective of personal view) as to whether or not it is more likely that these titles are referring to the same event or not, just as Son of Man vs Son of God refer to the same entity".

My stance is from that of a-millennialism, as in the Protestant Traditional View. Having been brought up in a neither-Catholic-nor-Protestant-but-Bible-based-group, and now being of the Reformed Protestant view, I have some experience of the rabbit-warren confusion that exists with topics such as this.

My answer, which follows, is that the two titles in the question refer to the same, one event. Here, now, is the case for stating that.

There are several Bible texts that point to the way out of this maze. They are stated in various Christian Greek texts. I will not touch the Hebrew scriptures regarding that. The question is explicitly asking about Jesus Christ. Christians are told in the Bible:

"That if thou shalt confess with thy mouth the Lord Jesus, and shalt believe in thine heart that God hath raised him from the dead, thou shalt be saved... For whoever shall call on the name of the Lord shall be saved." Romans 10:9 & 13 K.J.V.

The earliest Christian confessions of faith (usually at baptism) declared belief that "Jesus is Lord". He had become their Lord and their Saviour. This shows Christ to be fully divine. Further, 1 Corinthians 12:3 states that nobody can make this confession the right way without the Holy Spirit's enabling. See 2 Corinthians 3:17. Thus, the three Persons of the Godhead are involved. And, as correctly stated, there is only one God. See text below.

"But to us there is but one God, the Father, of whom are all things, and we in him; and one Lord Jesus Christ, by whom are all things, and we by him." 1 Corinthians 8:6 K.J.V. (Emphasis mine)

"There is one body, and one Spirit, even as ye are called in one hope of your calling; One Lord, one faith, one baptism, One God and Father of all..." Ephesians 4:4-6 K.J.V. (Emphasis mine)

Once a person understands this Holy Spirit enabled view of Jesus as Lord, then that confession may be made. Thereafter, the whole of scripture may open up and everything in it about "the Day of the Lord", and the "Day of Jesus Christ" seen in light of the glorious fact of the Lordship of Christ.

The only foundation that can be laid is that of Apostolic teaching (contained in the Bible), built upon Christ Jesus, Lord of his Church, which he builds. Only that way can the deeper teachings be tackled. Christians are to believe the words of Christ and accept doctrine as expounded by the Apostles, including what is stated about the awful Day of the Lord (for those who do not belong to him by faith) and the same, yet glorious, Day of Jesus Christ (for those who do belong to him by faith).

This will help prevent Christians from being swayed by every wind of teaching (especially new ones, such as a pre-or-mid-tribulation rapture) to focus on Christ as Lord. Then the Apostle Peter's doxology will be experienced:

"But grow in grace, and in the knowledge of our Lord and Saviour Jesus Christ. To him be glory both now and for ever. Amen." 2 Peter 3:18 K.J.V.

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A good question, and question that it's very asking expands others - like myself - a richer experience of the Scriptures this moment forward and it helps justify my initial Joy in discovering this site. Thank you for this.

As a Traditional Catholic and until reading this was ignorant to what is widely understood and realized in Holy Virgin Mother Mary titles reflecting particular aspects - the same and likely root - is used with Jesus in the Gospel.

A subset of the huge number of titles are included in different 'Litanies to Holy Mary', a few made more formal and widely used as one of many suggested for daily Catholic Prayers, or as first prayed to Holy Mary before personal prayers to her, our co-Redemptrix, both Redemptorists sharing overlap of Sacred Heart, so to Move one [Holy Mary's] is to move both [Jesus'.]

Since one yet has mentioned this Catholic application of Faith that is related to the question, it seems a Service to share it.

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Steven Work is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering. Check out our Code of Conduct.
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  • Sadly, it seems that - by my count - 3 Answers of (-1) score, out of 12 Answers to 12 Questions here has somehow blocked my ability to Answer questions. So, the moderators anti-Catholics, and GramerNazis will not have me to kick-around for a while. Commented Dec 9 at 15:48
  • Two of the three moderator's are Catholic, I believe. Commented Dec 11 at 13:19
  • @Mike, it was a general comment, not specific to this group. I was joyous in finding this site, anticipating a back-forth stimulating debates that I enjoyed so much with the many science research professionals I worked with, but sadly no. Something like screeching gonad-stomping Fem-Nazis tyrant-type mod.s are numerous enough to destroy greatness-potentials .. you don't need every nurse in a hospital to be a secrete serial killer to cast a dim-light on all. What percentage of mod.s need to be Tyrannical insulting narrow-minded walking bags of poison-vomit to give the entire site a toxic smell? Commented 2 days ago
  • "back-forth stimulating debates" is the exact opposite of what this site is intended to produce. Please check out the Tour, christianity.stackexchange.com/tour, and the "poison vomit" will likely stop. We would rather have you understand what happens here and stick around :) Commented yesterday
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Answering from a pre-mil pre-trib viewpoint.

If the Day of the Lord differs from the Day of Jesus Christ based on contextual distinctions (judgment vs. redemption), wouldn’t the same logic lend itself to suggest that titles like the Son of Man, Son of God, and Lamb of God refer to entirely different entities or personas?

Inconclusive. Yes, they could be taken to mean one event, but it could also be taken as separate events as well.

The pre-tribulational rapture perspective argues that terms like the Day of the Lord and the Day of Jesus Christ represent distinct events. From my understanding, this argument typically stems from the context of the passages within which the terms are used—the former is used in contexts of divine judgment, while the latter is associated with believers' hope and sanctification.

In my other answer, I noted that that was really the first time (in memory) I had heard them mentioned as different events. You don't need to hold to them being distinct events to hold to a pre-tribulation rapture. Why? Because the rapture ushers in the day of judgment of God upon the world. As you said, they could be seen as different facets of a larger event.

That being said, I do see why John MacArthur says that the day of Christ is the rapture and not completely synonymous with the day of the Lord. None of the passages below (all the ones I could find on the day of Christ) explicitly is talking about the great tribulation in the surrounding context, and all of them are talking about believers.

1 Corinthians 1:4-9

“I give thanks to my God always for you because of the grace of God that was given you in Christ Jesus, that in every way you were enriched in him in all speech and all knowledge— even as the testimony about Christ was confirmed among you— so that you are not lacking in any gift, as you wait for the revealing of our Lord Jesus Christ, who will sustain you to the end, guiltless in the day of our Lord Jesus Christ. God is faithful, by whom you were called into the fellowship of his Son, Jesus Christ our Lord.”

Philippians 1:3-6

“I thank my God in all my remembrance of you, always in every prayer of mine for you all making my prayer with joy, because of your partnership in the gospel from the first day until now. And I am sure of this, that he who began a good work in you will bring it to completion at the day of Jesus Christ.”

Philippians 2:14-18

“Do all things without grumbling or disputing, that you may be blameless and innocent, children of God without blemish in the midst of a crooked and twisted generation, among whom you shine as lights in the world, holding fast to the word of life, so that in the day of Christ I may be proud that I did not run in vain or labor in vain. Even if I am to be poured out as a drink offering upon the sacrificial offering of your faith, I am glad and rejoice with you all. Likewise you also should be glad and rejoice with me.”


Could these differing emphases simply reflect varied aspects of the same event, tailored to the audience or message being conveyed? Consider how the New Testament employs diverse titles for Jesus.

Just because God is simple, without parts, doesn't mean that all He has made, both tangible (us) and intangible (time, events) are simple too. We are not simple for we have parts. So, it's not guaranteed that time/events will remain simple as well. I don't think God's simplicity is a good proof that they can be the same event. But the names given to it can help us get a better understanding of the event if they are all the same event.

Regarding the day of the Lord

Names found in the Bible that relate to this are:

  • Time of Jacob's trouble (Jeremiah 30:7)

  • Day of the Lord (Isaiah 2,13, Jeremiah 46, Joel (yes, the whole book), Amos 5, Obadiah 15-18, Zephaniah 1-2, Zech 14, Malachi 4) (Note: Some verses here may refer to local judgments against nations, and not to end times, such as Isaiah 13)

  • Great tribulation (Matthew 24)

  • 70th week of Daniel (Daniel 9:24-27)

  • Hour of testing (Revelation 3:10)

  • Day of Christ (1 Corinthians 1:4-9, Philippians 1:3-6, 2:14-18)

So there are a number of names for this event, it doesn't mean they need to be different events either. Some hold that some of these have been fulfilled already (70th week of Daniel for instance), but the pre-trib viewpoint, in general, does not. Instead, it holds to a partial fulfillment of it in AD 70.

However, it must be said to that some events prophesied look forward to multiple events as a single event, even if there is a long period of time between them. (See Isaiah 9:6-7, 42:1-4)

So based on our perspective of now, looking forward, we cannot say conclusively that the day of the Lord and the day of Christ are the same event or distinct events, especially since they are not mentioned in the same passages, but in different books. In all likelihood they are referring to the same events.

Wouldn’t it follow, then, that the Day of the Lord and the Day of Jesus Christ could very likely describe distinct facets of a singular event? The Day of the Lord might emphasize the cosmic judgment and upheaval accompanying Christ’s return, while the Day of Jesus Christ focuses on the fulfillment of believers’ salvation and reward. To argue otherwise risks imposing divisions not explicitly delineated in Scripture, much as insisting on separate entities for Jesus’ various titles would.

I'd venture to say yes, they could be thought of as different sub-events of the end times. They are explicitly tied together as you say, just pre-tribulation holders view the rapture as happening first, then the tribulation.

However, use of the term facets may cause some confusion as the term could mean they are the exact same event, just looking at it from a different perspective. In this case the judgment of unbelievers is much much different than what happens to the Church. So I'd prefer to call them sub-events rather than facets.

  • Scriptures taken from the English Standard Version (ESV).
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    “Not mentioned in the same passage” perhaps true by name (I.e., Day of Lord and Day of Jesus Christ never explicitly stated in the same passage), but 1 Thess 4 which directly ties into chapter 5, with no contextual evidence of a “new day” being mentioned, does directly tie these events into one. Likewise in 2 Thess 1 & 2, as well as Matthew 24 - as I pointed to. Regardless, thank you for the response. Commented Dec 7 at 20:25

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