Timeline for When did a "formal act of correction" of a pope's statement happen in the past?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
15 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Nov 27, 2016 at 5:05 | history | tweeted | twitter.com/StackChristian/status/802740169388363776 | ||
| Nov 23, 2016 at 16:38 | comment | added | Geremia | @Michael16 But when St. Paul rebuked St. Peter for compelling the Gentiles to Judaize, St. Peter was pope. St. Robert writes: "St. Peter did not ratify by some decree that they must Judaize, rather, he formally taught the contrary in Acts XV. … But we do not deny that Popes can offer the occasion of erring through their own bad example, rather, we deny that they can prescribe the whole Church to follow some error ex cathedra." | |
| Nov 23, 2016 at 16:38 | comment | added | Geremia | @Michael16 St. Robert Bellarmine the position, in Papal Error? (cited in my answer below), that St. Peter was not yet pope when he denied Christ three times. | |
| Nov 22, 2016 at 13:55 | vote | accept | Grasper | ||
| Nov 22, 2016 at 0:37 | answer | added | Geremia | timeline score: 8 | |
| Nov 21, 2016 at 17:32 | comment | added | AthanasiusOfAlex | @Michael16 Ah I see. Of course, “infallibility” doesn't mean that every word that comes out of the Pope’s mouth is infallible: only when he intends to define something infallibly for the whole Church. Peter was already capable of that at Pentecost; it came with being the head of the Apostles. However, the incident mentioned in Galatians does not touch infallibility: Peter didn't teach anything erroneous there; he simply behaved inappropriately (by refusing to eat with Gentiles). | |
| Nov 21, 2016 at 16:57 | comment | added | Michael16 | @AthanasiusOfAlex the incident is not just about a difference in structure of office but infallibility. Peter was terribly wrong in his error, so catholics would say he did not yet become infallible; he wasn't Pope yet. | |
| Nov 21, 2016 at 16:39 | comment | added | AthanasiusOfAlex | @Michael16 Peter was the head of the college Apostles. The modern Petrine office (i.e., the authority that the Bishop of Rome—i.e, the Pope—has over other bishops) stems from this headship, so the example on Galatians is a good one. | |
| Nov 21, 2016 at 15:55 | comment | added | Michael16 | thats a good question. Catholics would say that Peter did not join the office of Pope that time, when Paul rebuked his error. christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/15710/… | |
| Nov 21, 2016 at 15:52 | comment | added | Grasper | @Michael16, what about Galatians 2:11? | |
| Nov 21, 2016 at 15:42 | comment | added | Michael16 | I doubt such thing ever happened. Only Popes themselves have condemned many previous popes. | |
| Nov 21, 2016 at 15:35 | history | edited | Grasper | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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| Nov 21, 2016 at 14:28 | comment | added | Ken Graham♦ | I am not sure if Cardinal Burke is really talking about a formal correction or a formal clarification? The two are different and until the statement is official one can not say! | |
| Nov 21, 2016 at 14:21 | comment | added | Andrew Leach | I'm not sure about "formal correction" of a living pope, but Honorius I was anathematised forty years after his death. | |
| Nov 21, 2016 at 14:09 | history | asked | Grasper | CC BY-SA 3.0 |