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Michael16
  • Member for 5 years, 8 months
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Read my main question on the translation of Gal 3:21 "if a law had been given" by all modern bible versions, and try to answer if it is the biggest mistranslation in the Bible based on the bias that the law could never give life, which Paul never suggested? https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/25183/is-it-appropriate-to-translate-galatians-321-as-if-a-law-had-been-given

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question
6
What is an overview of Lutheran faith-alone systematically taught before Martin Luther?
Oct 28, 2016
answer
6
Old Testament Evidence of the Hypostatic Union
Oct 22, 2016
answer
5
According to Reformed theology, is teaching a false Trinitarian concept considered blasphemy?
Oct 25, 2016
answer
4
Does Jesus's name lose authority in other languages? (Catholic)
Oct 27, 2016
question
4
What is the basis for the belief among some Protestants that Christ's teachings do not apply to us today?
Nov 3, 2016
question
4
Did the early Church fathers believe the Law of Moses was never able to justify?
Mar 27
answer
2
Where in the bible is Jesus referred to as Jesus bin Miriam?
Sep 19, 2016
question
2
How were the old saints justified under the law? (Catholic and Protestant views) [closed]
Oct 20, 2016
answer
2
Why did Jesus refer to Gentiles as dogs?
Sep 20, 2016
answer
2
Why does the NIV have 16 verses missing from the Bible?
Sep 21, 2016
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12
Is it appropriate to translate Galatians 3:21 as "If a law had been given"?
12
What are the oldest known records of interpretation agreeing with New Perspective on Paul?
8
Why is there a separation between Luke and Acts?
5
Does being "least in the kingdom" signify hell in Matt 5:19?
5
Which work did Jesus mean in John 17:4 about already finishing the work that God gave him?

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