As with many others I know, I believe in both the infallibility and inerrancy of the Bible.

But what is the difference between these two important terms?

If something has no errors (inerrant), then must it not also be free from fabrications (infallible)? And isn't the inverse statement also true?

^{_{I asked about the Biblical basis for inerrancy previously.}}

As with many others I know, I believe in both the infallibility and inerrancy of the Bible.

But what is the difference between these two important terms?

If something has no errors (inerrant), then must it not also be free from fabrications (infallible)? And isn't the inverse statement also true?

^{_{I asked about the Biblical basis for inerrancy previously.}}

As with many others I know, I believe in both the infallibility and inerrancy of the Bible.

What is the difference between these two important terms?

If something has no errors (inerrant), then must it not also be free from fabrications (infallible)? And isn't the inverse statement also true?

^{_{I asked about the Biblical basis for inerrancy previously.}}

As with many others I know, I believe in both the infallibility and inerrancy of the Bible.

But what is the difference between these two important terms?

If something has no errors (inerrant), then must it not also be free from fabrications (infallible)? And isn't the inverse statement also true?

^{_{I asked about the Biblical basis for inerrancy previously.}}