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curiousdannii
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user68393
user68393

Why/When Did Jesus change from being sent ONLY to Jews (Mat 15:24) to dying for the sins of all humanity. (Col 1:22;Heb 10:10 & John 14:6 etc?)

Jesus is the Messiah. From my understanding of scripture, the Messiah was promised to the Jews. If the Jews had accepted him as such - (a hypothetical) - was the Messiah prophesied to die for the sins of ONLY the Jews? If Jesus was sent only to the Jews -(AND HE ALWAYS DOES THE WILL OF THE FATHER) - when was the mission changed by the father (to turn it into a global mission of dying the the sins of all humanity)? Or did Jesus change it by himself?