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Sep 24, 2022 at 17:36 history edited Dan Fefferman CC BY-SA 4.0
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Sep 24, 2022 at 17:24 comment added Dan Fefferman I added a bit on the Christian legal justification for the practice of punishing heretics with death.
Sep 24, 2022 at 17:22 history edited Dan Fefferman CC BY-SA 4.0
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Sep 24, 2022 at 16:44 history edited Dan Fefferman CC BY-SA 4.0
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Sep 24, 2022 at 16:42 comment added Dan Fefferman @curiousdannii I'll update my answer to indicate that at least some of these OT examples were used as justifications in the Christian Era. Will add: "you shall not suffer a witch to live."
Sep 24, 2022 at 16:39 comment added Dan Fefferman My point was that the OP asked about "people burned as heretics by the Church." I hope my answer didn't read as a defense of the Church's role. I agree that it is a lame excuse.
Sep 24, 2022 at 16:16 comment added Only True God +1 "Technically it was not the Church that burned heretics, it was the state, after the Church had condemned the person." LAME, and you know it! Did the Church stand up to the state when it burned heretics? Condemn the state? Give safe harbour to those accused by the state? NOT REALLY. In most cases, the Church was complicit.
Sep 24, 2022 at 15:05 comment added Ray Butterworth The problem here is that the "Biblical basis" is strictly based on the civil laws given for running the physical nation of Israel. Christians are members of spiritual Israel, and are to submit themselves to the authority of whatever civil government they are living under. Heretics are simply to be rejected from the Christian community.
Sep 24, 2022 at 13:52 comment added Mike Borden Did the biblical basis disappear?
Sep 24, 2022 at 5:42 comment added curiousdannii What's the Biblical basis for the state punishing heretics in the Christian era?
Sep 24, 2022 at 4:52 history edited Dan Fefferman CC BY-SA 4.0
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Sep 24, 2022 at 4:36 history answered Dan Fefferman CC BY-SA 4.0