Timeline for Is it possible for a person who has faith in Jesus to only receive “a measure of salvation” as opposed to “full salvation”?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
11 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Nov 8, 2021 at 14:12 | vote | accept | Anne | ||
| Nov 4, 2021 at 15:00 | history | tweeted | twitter.com/StackChristian/status/1456275069689204741 | ||
| Nov 4, 2021 at 13:24 | history | became hot network question | |||
| Nov 4, 2021 at 1:52 | answer | added | Mike Borden | timeline score: 3 | |
| Nov 4, 2021 at 0:22 | comment | added | Constantthin | Paul speaks about some kind of reward in 1 Cor 3, so you could be onto something. | |
| Nov 4, 2021 at 0:03 | comment | added | Mike Borden | This is a very subtle question. +1 | |
| Nov 3, 2021 at 23:04 | comment | added | jong ricafort | Bp.Barron has an excellent explanation on this thing, have you heard about "fullness of salvation" or direct entrance into Heaven like the Saints, compare to "salvation" which is attributed to "purgatory" only, because many have not perfected their faith while on earth and so, not worthy to enter Heaven, but were save too, but must spend time and be purge for perfection. | |
| Nov 3, 2021 at 21:54 | comment | added | jaredad7 | Thinking that works contribute to or play some role in one's salvation is not the same thing as the belief that one "earns" one's salvation. | |
| Nov 3, 2021 at 21:54 | answer | added | rhetorician | timeline score: 8 | |
| Nov 3, 2021 at 19:49 | answer | added | Isaac Middlemiss | timeline score: 4 | |
| Nov 3, 2021 at 12:36 | history | asked | Anne | CC BY-SA 4.0 |