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Sep 12, 2021 at 21:52 comment added user46876 Scribes and authors are distinct concepts; this question employs the term writer in the latter sense, whereas the answer uses it to refer to the former, as if dictating text to a secretary was an unknown practice in ancient times (Romans 16:22).
Sep 12, 2021 at 12:39 comment added Mike Borden You might check to see if that ending is supported by good manuscript evidence. Young's Literal Translation, for instance, does not include it.
Sep 12, 2021 at 11:23 comment added Lesley Welcome to Christianity Stack Exchange. When you have time, please take our Tour to see how we are different to other sites, and what we look for in answers: christianity.stackexchange.com/tour
Sep 12, 2021 at 3:45 review Late answers
Sep 17, 2021 at 12:44
S Sep 12, 2021 at 3:26 review First answers
Sep 12, 2021 at 4:07
S Sep 12, 2021 at 3:26 history answered Jodi Forrester CC BY-SA 4.0