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Feb 4, 2021 at 10:35 comment added Nigel J @curiousdannii Not to belabour or argue the point, but diatheke is defined in the Greek scripture as that in which a Testator figures, therefore it is a testament, involving probate and beneficiaries, not a covenant involving parties obligated one to the other.
Feb 4, 2021 at 10:12 comment added curiousdannii @NigelJ The Gospel is the New Covenant so that still applies I think...
Feb 4, 2021 at 8:24 comment added Nigel J I believe the promise and agreement made between two parties refers to the law, not to the Gospel. "When we were yet without strength, Christ died for the ungodly" Romans 5:6.
Feb 4, 2021 at 6:24 comment added curiousdannii @curiositasisasinbutstillcuriou Really depends what you mean by "know God".
Feb 4, 2021 at 5:57 comment added curiositasisasinbutstillcuriou Interesting. Yes, maybe I should clarify my question. I'm not disagreeing about God's nature being unchanging. That is true...But the meaning of "Knowing God" does literally seem to shift in history--before Christ's life it does not mean the same thing as after him--it's literally true after his Resurrection only if you "Know God" through Christ. But it would be interesting if that were possible before Christ's life on Earth. Thanks again.
Feb 4, 2021 at 5:46 comment added curiousdannii @curiositasisasinbutstillcuriou There are different views about that. Covenant Theologians would say yes, Dispensationalists would say no. My point is that the character and attributes of God are unchanging while his interactions in history are events that happen at particular times and have consequences that follow.
Feb 4, 2021 at 5:43 comment added curiositasisasinbutstillcuriou Thank you. To be sure I understand your answer, you are saying that before Jesus' life God's salvation was the same, just not revealed by the same means? Is that correct?
Feb 4, 2021 at 5:30 history answered curiousdannii CC BY-SA 4.0