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Aug 19, 2019 at 7:09 comment added Andrew Shanks I think you put too much weight on the punctuation. It is not unreasonable to add quotation marks in 10:7 (even though the Greek did not have them), modern English would (almost) invariably have quotation marks after the words Then said I..... Modern English would then have (opening) quotation marks. If you look at Psalm 40 starting from verse 7 where does the speaker cease speaking? Where would the quotation marks close in Psalm 40? Verse 17?? Did Jesus literally say all of these things? He may well have done reading it aloud of course... but it isn't the point for the author Hebrews.
Aug 19, 2019 at 2:19 comment added Jonathan Fernandez Thank you for your answer, "is not primarily a verbatim quote of Jesus." Do you happen to know, then, "why" it is placed in quotation marks in the translations that I have. "Who" puts the quotation marks there: generally early texts would have had no punctuation marks whatsoever. Likely would have been scripta continua. Therefore, the "quotation marks" are an editorial decision? By?
Aug 18, 2019 at 8:12 history edited Andrew Shanks CC BY-SA 4.0
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Aug 18, 2019 at 8:01 history answered Andrew Shanks CC BY-SA 4.0