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Jan 3, 2019 at 11:31 history edited curiousdannii
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S Jan 1, 2019 at 22:01 history suggested Justin CC BY-SA 4.0
the question is about infant baptism, and the word infant was removed in the body of the question.
Jan 1, 2019 at 19:08 review Suggested edits
S Jan 1, 2019 at 22:01
Jan 1, 2019 at 19:06 answer added Justin timeline score: 0
Jan 1, 2019 at 18:47 comment added DJClayworth I have edited the question to reflect what it seems you want to ask.
Jan 1, 2019 at 18:47 history edited DJClayworth CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jan 1, 2019 at 18:23 answer added sondra.kinsey timeline score: 5
Dec 14, 2018 at 21:00 comment added JBH I don't have sufficient resources to deserve posting an actual answer, but the answer to your question is "no." The Jews have (or believe) to practice baptism by immersion from Adam and continue to do so today. But even if you exclude them (assuming that the Jewish belief in a Messiah before the birth of Jesus fails to make them "Christian" at that time), Christianity began to schisim basically from day #1. If anyone could answer "yes," I'd need to see a whopping amount of proof to be happy.
Dec 13, 2018 at 0:44 comment added Herkfixer If you want to get a more precise answer then you should narrow it down to the catholic (little c) church (they still are theologically speaking but there was no distinction prior to the Reformation). Essentially all Christians were of the catholic (universal) church prior to 1518 so whatever the idea of the day prior to that was then "all Christian denominations" (since there were no denominations) would have believed the same thing at that point (on paper).
Dec 13, 2018 at 0:31 comment added Herkfixer I think you are asking too broad of a question because there wasn't even such of a thing as "denominations" until the 1500's when Protestants split from the Roman Catholic Church. Essentially prior to then, there was only "one, holy, apostolic church." Though the case could be made between a split of Orthodox and Roman Catholic in the 1000's. You can see a sprinkling of credobaptism all the way back in the Didache in the 2nd century because there was a catechistic process that was required prior to baptism but there were no hard and fast "thou shalt not baptize babies" in writing.
Dec 12, 2018 at 22:33 comment added Siju George I mean "was there a time when all places, sects or denominations practiced infant baptism?"
Dec 12, 2018 at 12:29 comment added davidlol Are you asking if there was a time when all had ONLY infant baptism? That would mean that there was no adult baptism at all. Or do you simply mean when all places, sects or denominations practiced infant baptism. I don't think there has ever been a place or time that ONLY allowed infant baptism, although adult baptism may have been rare. Always an adult convert, or a persom who had not been baptised as an infant, would have been allowed to be baptised as an adult.
Dec 12, 2018 at 12:00 history tweeted twitter.com/StackChristian/status/1072823495497781248
Dec 12, 2018 at 9:03 comment added Siju George Edited. Is that wording fine?
Dec 12, 2018 at 8:59 history edited Siju George CC BY-SA 4.0
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Dec 12, 2018 at 5:24 comment added SLM Your comment question is different from your OP question. Believe Justin Martyr c150ad taught credobaptism.
Dec 12, 2018 at 5:04 comment added Siju George Ok, I wrote protestant because I thought there were only Catholics ( with the pope ) and Protestants ( with Luther ). What I want to know is "Was there any period in history when all who beleived in Christ did only infant baptism?"
Dec 12, 2018 at 2:43 comment added Joseph Hinkle I think anabaptists showed up pretty early...and there were always rogue Christians throughout history who would change up the standard baptism procedures. So it depends how you define "protestant."
Dec 12, 2018 at 1:08 history asked Siju George CC BY-SA 4.0