Timeline for Do Protestants believe Jesus misquoted Psalm 8:2 in Matthew 21:16?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
8 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Jun 29, 2018 at 16:44 | vote | accept | emeth | ||
| Jun 28, 2018 at 18:31 | history | edited | Nathaniel is protesting | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
edited body; edited tags
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| Jun 28, 2018 at 18:28 | comment | added | Nathaniel is protesting | Put simply, if I understand correctly, the difficulty is that if the MT is the inspired text, then Jesus is quoting something that isn't inspired (a divergent reading – the Septuagint) as if it were inspired. This is a common issue in NT quotes of the OT, with many different ways to explain it based on the example. | |
| Jun 28, 2018 at 18:23 | answer | added | Nathaniel is protesting | timeline score: 5 | |
| Jun 28, 2018 at 18:07 | comment | added | Jon the Architect | I don’t understand the premise of the question. Jesus is clearly quoting the Septuagint. If your question is why does the ESV use the Masoretic Text, why not just ask that? Protestants haven’t agreed on a translation, so the premise is incorrect. | |
| Jun 28, 2018 at 16:26 | answer | added | Lesley | timeline score: 1 | |
| Jun 28, 2018 at 12:54 | comment | added | Nigel J | The textual issue itself (that Jesus, speaking in Greek at the time, may be quoting the Greek Septuagint, not the Hebrew) is clarified in an answer on Hermeneutics. There isn't anything to 'reconcile' - as far as I can see. | |
| Jun 28, 2018 at 4:27 | history | asked | emeth | CC BY-SA 4.0 |