Timeline for Why Does Herod Say He Had Beheaded John the Baptist When He Knows He's in Prison? (Mark 6)
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
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when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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Oct 20, 2016 at 22:22 | vote | accept | CommunityBot | ||
Oct 20, 2016 at 18:11 | answer | added | Scottish Carpenter | timeline score: 3 | |
Oct 20, 2016 at 5:07 | history | edited | curiousdannii♦ |
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Oct 20, 2016 at 5:01 | answer | added | Kadalikatt Joseph Sibichan | timeline score: 3 | |
Oct 20, 2016 at 4:55 | comment | added | Kadalikatt Joseph Sibichan | Look at the phraseology of Verse 17 :" For Herod had sent and seized John.." . In terms of English grammar, 'had sent' implies Past Perfect Tense which is used to indicate an action that is already complete at the time of the main action which is spoken of. Here, the main action spoken of is Herod wondering whether John the Baptist had come back to life So, there is no duality of expression here. | |
Oct 20, 2016 at 1:51 | comment | added | KorvinStarmast | Maybe Herod was drunk at the time. He was hardly averse to the pleasures of the flesh. | |
Oct 19, 2016 at 23:43 | comment | added | curiousdannii♦ | Verses 17-29 are a flashback. | |
Oct 19, 2016 at 23:15 | history | asked | user27128 | CC BY-SA 3.0 |