Timeline for Is there a moral goodness in In vitro fertilization?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
12 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Jan 12, 2020 at 22:55 | comment | added | Paul Draper | @MichaelVincent but that logic could apply to anything. If someone impregnates a prostitute...is the choice born via prostitution or not born at all? | |
| May 26, 2016 at 8:56 | comment | added | Michael Vincent | Fair point, @Geremia - I wasn't including supernatural events in my considerations. | |
| May 25, 2016 at 17:35 | comment | added | Geremia | @MichaelVincent There are other options, such as NaPro. Even those who are barren have a chance of conceiving; look at just about every woman in Holy Scripture: Sarah, Rachel, Hannah, Elizabeth, et al. These godly women never did anything immoral despite the great crosses of infertility they had to bear. | |
| May 25, 2016 at 7:40 | comment | added | Michael Vincent | In normal situations, a person born through IVF, would not otherwise be born - the parents being otherwise barren, usually. So the options to that person were not to be born by IVF or born through an act of marital love, but rather the options were to be be born via IVF or not to be born at all. | |
| May 24, 2016 at 21:27 | review | Suggested edits | |||
| May 24, 2016 at 21:48 | |||||
| May 24, 2016 at 18:08 | vote | accept | Grasper | ||
| May 24, 2016 at 18:07 | vote | accept | Grasper | ||
| May 24, 2016 at 18:07 | |||||
| May 24, 2016 at 18:02 | history | edited | Geremia | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
added ¶ on Donum Vitæ (courtesy AthanasiusOfAlex)
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| May 24, 2016 at 18:00 | comment | added | Geremia | @AthanasiusOfAlex thank you. That was also mentioned in the LSN article I linked to in my comment above. | |
| May 24, 2016 at 17:57 | comment | added | AthanasiusOfAlex | FYI, the authoritative Magisterial source source is Donum Vitae, a 1987 document from the CDF. Note that even if masturbation and grave danger to the life of the embryo could be avoided, IVF is still intrinsically immoral, because it deprives the child of his God-given right to be procreated in an act of marital love. Look at sections A.1, “Why must human procreation take place in a marriage?” and B.4 on homologous artificial fertilization. | |
| May 24, 2016 at 15:56 | history | edited | Geremia | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
added 48 characters in body
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| May 24, 2016 at 15:46 | history | answered | Geremia | CC BY-SA 3.0 |