Timeline for Why does the bible never specifically condemn premarital sex?
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| Jun 17, 2020 at 8:57 | history | edited | CommunityBot |
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| May 7, 2016 at 17:03 | comment | added | rhetorician | @MatthiasDailey: Yes, but . . .. Scripture is rife with all kinds of traditions within Judaism, each of which (e.g., parental approval, the bride price, a formal engagement which was taken just as seriously as the actual marriage, and sanctions which covered a host of possible complications) testifies to the sacredness of the bond between a husband and wife. Marriage, at least within the Judeo-Christian heritage, has never been entered into lightly. Furthermore, I suggest that a majority of both men and women subscribe to the ideal of a covenantal marriage ceremony before God and witnesses. | |
| May 7, 2016 at 3:33 | comment | added | Matthias | "1 Corinthians 7:2 makes perfectly clear..." -- I would contend with this statement. Paul may be speaking about the desire of sex (which if unbounded can lead to immorality), which is the reason in 7:1 that not everyone can be celibate, and why the remedy given is sexual availability in 7:3. Plus, I know of no scripture that specifies a man can only call a woman his wife only after going through an ordained ceremony. In fact the opposite: "let your yes be yes...". | |
| Mar 22, 2016 at 17:52 | vote | accept | nothingtoseeherelookoverthere | ||
| Mar 22, 2016 at 17:52 | |||||
| Mar 22, 2016 at 0:47 | history | answered | rhetorician | CC BY-SA 3.0 |