Timeline for Why do translations use words like "servants" to mean "slaves"?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
6 events
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| Aug 16, 2020 at 20:10 | comment | added | rjpond | Indeed, according to the Oxford English Dictionary, the word "servant" was used in all the Bible translations "from Wyclif to the Revised Version of 1880–4" for many of the instances where "slave" would be a more literal (but, in the words of the OED, "perhaps" misleading) translation. | |
| Oct 29, 2017 at 15:13 | comment | added | Dan Randolph | Tyndale translated the Torah in 1530. The KJV was not published until 1611. In Tyndale's translation, the word used is "servaunte" this is the same as "servant" in modern English. The KJV version is about 90% the same as the words used by Tyndale. | |
| Jul 28, 2015 at 21:43 | comment | added | ThaddeusB | Further discussion on the KJV specifically can be found in chat. | |
| Jul 28, 2015 at 15:49 | comment | added | user3961 | This seems like mostly speculation. | |
| Jul 28, 2015 at 15:45 | comment | added | user3961 | English listeners from the early 17th century would have had no understanding of the word "slave". I think you need a source. | |
| Jul 27, 2015 at 17:57 | history | answered | brasshat | CC BY-SA 3.0 |