Timeline for Interpreting Acts 2:38 together with John 1:12
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
22 events
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| Jun 17, 2020 at 8:57 | history | edited | CommunityBot |
Commonmark migration
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| Sep 4, 2015 at 21:46 | history | edited | ThaddeusB |
add "forgiveness" tag
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| Sep 4, 2015 at 21:42 | history | edited | curiousdannii♦ |
edited tags
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| Sep 4, 2015 at 21:42 | comment | added | curiousdannii♦ | I'm voting to close this question as unclear. We do allow questions asking how two passages can be reconciled, but we need more of an explanation for why you think they are contradictory. | |
| Sep 4, 2015 at 21:34 | review | Close votes | |||
| Sep 11, 2015 at 2:28 | |||||
| May 3, 2015 at 17:27 | answer | added | Decrypted | timeline score: -2 | |
| May 3, 2015 at 3:45 | answer | added | KnowTruth Ministries | timeline score: -1 | |
| Jun 22, 2014 at 19:38 | comment | added | Paul Draper | FYI, John 3:5 "Except a man be born of water and of the Spirit he cannot enter into the kingdom of God" also seems to show baptism as a requirement for salvation (forgiveness). | |
| Jun 4, 2014 at 13:05 | comment | added | Narnian | @davidbrainerd The significance is that the verbs are not in parallel, and that does impact the interpretation and meaning. And it is true that the verbs are not the same conjugation. | |
| Jun 4, 2014 at 3:48 | comment | added | david brainerd | @Narnian, Even if what you're saying were true, it wouldn't mean what you want it to. Frequently in languages other than English only the main verb takes an imperative while supporting verbs might take an indicative and yet also be imperative in meaning. Big deal. | |
| Jun 4, 2014 at 0:52 | history | tweeted | twitter.com/#!/StackChristian/status/473990614447431680 | ||
| Jun 3, 2014 at 18:47 | comment | added | Narnian | @H3br3wHamm3r81 oops... still imperative, you're right... just third person Passive, I believe. | |
| Jun 3, 2014 at 18:35 | answer | added | user11482 | timeline score: 6 | |
| Jun 3, 2014 at 18:25 | comment | added | user900 | @Narnian: Huh? Are you saying that βαπτισθήτω is conjugated in the indicative mood and not imperative mood? | |
| Jun 3, 2014 at 17:49 | answer | added | rhetorician | timeline score: 5 | |
| Jun 3, 2014 at 14:58 | comment | added | Narnian | Acts 2:38 uses 2nd person imperative for Repent "All of you repent" and third person SINGULAR Indicative (NOT Imperative) for "baptized". This does not come out easily in English, but may be best understood as "All of you repent and then let him who does repent then be baptized (also)." So baptism in water is not necessary for salvation. See Acts 10 also as Gentiles received the Holy Spirits (baptism of the Holy Spirit) prior to being baptized in water. | |
| Jun 3, 2014 at 14:55 | answer | added | david brainerd | timeline score: 0 | |
| Jun 3, 2014 at 14:20 | history | edited | Dan | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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| Jun 3, 2014 at 14:17 | history | edited | DJClayworth | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
edited title
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| Jun 3, 2014 at 14:16 | answer | added | DJClayworth | timeline score: 7 | |
| Jun 3, 2014 at 14:10 | history | migrated | from hermeneutics.stackexchange.com (revisions) | ||
| Jun 3, 2014 at 0:44 | history | asked | Leonard Wilkinson | CC BY-SA 3.0 |