Timeline for The Bible seems to allow polygamy. Why doesn't the church?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
6 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Dec 17, 2020 at 9:17 | comment | added | Traxo | "A man shall not covet his neighbors "wife", single wife. Again a demonstration of God's intent for righteous marriage." - very weak argument using Exodus 20:17, because it also uses other singulars. So using the same verse, is it a sin to have multiple oxes, or donkeys? | |
| Oct 15, 2019 at 21:45 | review | Suggested edits | |||
| Oct 15, 2019 at 23:43 | |||||
| Sep 26, 2016 at 20:55 | comment | added | KorvinStarmast | @RIchard Your "church is many wives" does not follow. The Bride of Christ is a singular figure, not a dual. You are splitting a meaning that the epistle does not split. I'd call that weak argument a less that brilliant attempt at a bait and switch (for all that I enjoyed your answer ...) | |
| Aug 24, 2011 at 18:32 | history | edited | jrista | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
Added response to Richard's comment
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| Aug 24, 2011 at 14:36 | comment | added | Richard | +1 for the reference to culture. I believe this is the source and the true answer. For the rest: 1) God allowed polygamy. But, God is the same God today as he was back then. Both now and forever. So does he not allow it now? 2) The "one man one woman" argument is a weak argument. Example: A husband is to love his wife as Jesus loves the church. The church is a group of people. Ergo a husband can love many wives. 3) Coveting your neighbor's wife is wrong. Polygyny though? I don't see the connection. 4) 1 Cor 7:2 does not exclude polygyny. | |
| Aug 24, 2011 at 7:35 | history | answered | jrista | CC BY-SA 3.0 |