Yes, the Law seems to allow polygamy, or at least be fine with it. It also seems to allow divorce, and yet Jesus was clear on the subject in Matthew 19 (emphasis mine):

³ The Pharisees also came unto him, tempting him, and saying unto him, Is it lawful for a man to put away his wife for every cause?

⁴ And he answered and said unto them, Have ye not read, that he which made them at the beginning made them male and female,

⁵ And said, For this cause shall a man leave father and mother, and  shall cleave to his wife: and they twain shall be one flesh?

⁶ Wherefore they are no more twain, but one flesh. What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder.

⁷ They say unto him, Why did Moses then command to give a writing of divorcement, and to put her away?

⁸ He saith unto them, Moses because of the hardness of your hearts suffered you to put away your wives: but from the beginning it was not so.

⁹ And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery.

The Old Testament was clear when it stated that a man would "leave father and mother, and cleave to his wife, and they would be one flesh". Jesus answered on this topic of divorce that the Law was given because of the hardness of the hearts of men, and I believe the same goes for having several wives. It is not that God desired or accepted it, but it was allowed because of the hardness of men's hearts.

In both cases of polygyny and divorce, you can refer to God stating that man and his wife will be one. In the case of polygyny, who is one with whom? Are the various wives of a single man one with one another because they are one with him? Clearly, polygyny is against the will of God of uniting a man and woman in such a special way that they become one.

Jesus wasn't specifically asked about polygamy, but I believe His point about divorce being adultery would apply just the same to polygamy.

Yes, the Law seems to allow polygamy, or at least be fine with it. It also seems to allow divorce, and yet Jesus was clear on the subject in this passage (italic emphasis mine):

Matthew 19:3-9 (KJV)
3 The Pharisees also came unto him, tempting him, and saying unto him, Is it lawful for a man to put away his wife for every cause? 4 And he answered and said unto them, Have ye not read, that he which made them at the beginning made them male and female, 5 And said, For this cause shall a man leave father and mother, and  shall cleave to his wife: and they twain shall be one flesh? 6 Wherefore they are no more twain, but one flesh. What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder. 7 They say unto him, Why did Moses then command to give a writing of divorcement, and to put her away? 8 He saith unto them, Moses because of the hardness of your hearts suffered you to put away your wives: but from the beginning it was not so. 9 And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery.

The Old Testament was clear when it stated that a man would "leave father and mother, and cleave to his wife, and they would be one flesh". Jesus answered on this topic of divorce that the Law was given because of the hardness of the hearts of men, and I believe the same goes for having several wives. It is not that God desired or accepted it, but it was allowed because of the hardness of men's hearts.

In both cases of polygyny and divorce, you can refer to God stating that man and his wife will be one. In the case of polygyny, who is one with whom? Are the various wives of a single man one with one another because they are one with him? Clearly, polygyny is against the will of God of uniting a man and woman in such a special way that they become one.

Jesus wasn't specifically asked about polygamy, but I believe His point about divorce being adultery would apply just the same to polygamy.

Yes, the Law seems to allow polygamy, or at least be fine with it. It also seems to allow divorce, and yet Jesus was clear on the subject in Matthew 19 (emphasis mine):

³ The Pharisees also came unto him, tempting him, and saying unto him, Is it lawful for a man to put away his wife for every cause?

⁴ And he answered and said unto them, Have ye not read, that he which made them at the beginning made them male and female,

⁵ And said, For this cause shall a man leave father and mother, and shall cleave to his wife: and they twain shall be one flesh?

⁶ Wherefore they are no more twain, but one flesh. What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder.

⁷ They say unto him, Why did Moses then command to give a writing of divorcement, and to put her away?

⁸ He saith unto them, Moses because of the hardness of your hearts suffered you to put away your wives: but from the beginning it was not so.

⁹ And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery.

The Old Testament was clear when it stated that a man would "leave father and mother, and cleave to his wife, and they would be one flesh". Jesus answered on this topic of divorce that the Law was given because of the hardness of the hearts of men, and I believe the same goes for having several wives. It is not that God desired or accepted it, but it was allowed because of the hardness of men's hearts.

Yes, the Law seems to allow polygamy, or at least be fine with it. It also seems to allow divorce, and yet Jesus was clear on the subject in Matthew 19 (emphasis mine):

³ The Pharisees also came unto him, tempting him, and saying unto him, Is it lawful for a man to put away his wife for every cause?

⁴ And he answered and said unto them, Have ye not read, that he which made them at the beginning made them male and female,

⁵ And said, For this cause shall a man leave father and mother, and shall cleave to his wife: and they twain shall be one flesh?

⁶ Wherefore they are no more twain, but one flesh. What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder.

⁷ They say unto him, Why did Moses then command to give a writing of divorcement, and to put her away?

⁸ He saith unto them, Moses because of the hardness of your hearts suffered you to put away your wives: but from the beginning it was not so.

⁹ And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery.

The Old Testament was clear when it stated that a man would "leave father and mother, and cleave to his wife, and they would be one flesh". Jesus answered on this topic of divorce that the Law was given because of the hardness of the hearts of men, and I believe the same goes for having several wives. It is not that God desired or accepted it, but it was allowed because of the hardness of men's hearts.

In both cases of polygyny and divorce, you can refer to God stating that man and his wife will be one. In the case of polygyny, who is one with whom? Are the various wives of a single man one with one another because they are one with him? Clearly, polygyny is against the will of God of uniting a man and woman in such a special way that they become one.

Jesus wasn't specifically asked about polygamy, but I believe His point about divorce being adultery would apply just the same to polygamy.