Timeline for How do we know Mary was a virgin at the time of Jesus' conception?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
13 events
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| Dec 8, 2021 at 14:25 | comment | added | qxn | @Tear--Here Is it possible that the Hebrew word does not literally mean "virgin", but implies virginity? Do we ever rely on a word's implication, rather than it's definition? | |
| Jan 20, 2021 at 0:10 | comment | added | Tear--Here | "If you want, we can get into the Greek and Hebrew here" Let's. No Septuagint, no virgin. It's not in the Hebrew, only in the Greek translation of it. It is more than passing interesting that Matthew, "the most Jewish Gospel", relies on the Greek to quote a Jewish prophesy which just happens to change it's whole meaning. What is the sign that Isaiah speaks of a sign for? Not the birth of the Messiah, but of the deliverance of Israel from enemy hands (Assyrian or Babylonian, not sure which.) | |
| Sep 27, 2019 at 23:02 | comment | added | wberry | Luke 3 gives the genealogy through Joseph, who 'was believed' to be Y'shua's father. Matthew gives the genealogy through Mary. Matthew 1:16 is usually translated to English like "Jacob begat Joseph the husband of Mary", or sometimes the betrothed of Mary. This is a translation issue. The Aramaic word here is gowra meaning betrothed or guardian, ie step-father or adoptive father. Matthew's genealogy is through Mary and her 'guardian' Joseph. Having both genealogies establishes that Y'shua is fully a descendant of David. | |
| Sep 27, 2019 at 22:46 | comment | added | wberry | @davidbrainerd Matthew states only that the child was born in Bethlehem, not that Joseph and Mary lived there. Matthew does not say the Magi found the child still in Bethlehem, only that Herod searched for the child and ordered all young boys in Bethlehem killed. The Magi either arrived before the family returned to Nazareth, or followed the star to them. Joseph may have sold or given land and property to relatives before fleeing for Egypt, not knowing when/if they would return. This would allow that he intended to resettle in Judea but diverted back to Nazareth again. No contradiction. | |
| Nov 24, 2014 at 2:58 | comment | added | Geremia | Jesus's birth was the consummation of the marriage. Matt. 1:25 does not necessarily imply they had carnal intercourse after His birth. | |
| Sep 20, 2014 at 19:18 | comment | added | david brainerd | Yes, the two accounts of Jesus birth contradict. Luke has them living in Nazareth, move to Bethlehem, instantly back to Naz after Mary's post-birth purification. Matt has them living in Bethlehem, PERIOD, until the running away to Egypt, and they move to Nazareth after, only to avoid going back to a Herod-heir controlled region. So rather than corroborate each other, Matt1-2 and Luke1-2 destroy each other. Especially on the consideration that the VB would disqualify his Messiahship! Since he must be a descendant of David, and thus have a human father to recon a genealogy from. | |
| Sep 16, 2011 at 23:08 | vote | accept | Flimzy | ||
| Sep 7, 2011 at 19:25 | comment | added | Caleb | Who is Immanuel? | |
| Sep 7, 2011 at 19:19 | comment | added | Peter Turner♦ | Umm, yeah He is called Immanuel. God With Us, ring a bell? | |
| Sep 7, 2011 at 19:15 | history | edited | Flimzy | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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| Sep 7, 2011 at 19:15 | comment | added | wax eagle | @Sklivvz - I'm actually going to ask that one. | |
| Sep 7, 2011 at 19:03 | comment | added | Sklivvz | Except Jesus is not called Immanuel, or is he? :) | |
| Sep 7, 2011 at 18:59 | history | answered | Richard | CC BY-SA 3.0 |