Timeline for Why was the Bible not available to common people in the Medieval period?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
18 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Sep 23, 2017 at 2:09 | history | edited | curiousdannii♦ | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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| Sep 22, 2017 at 16:11 | history | edited | Nathaniel is protesting |
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| Jul 3, 2014 at 19:17 | history | protected | CommunityBot | ||
| Jan 18, 2014 at 18:45 | answer | added | Orphid | timeline score: 1 | |
| Aug 5, 2013 at 7:38 | answer | added | Cassie | timeline score: 0 | |
| Jul 22, 2013 at 6:00 | vote | accept | Mawia | ||
| Jul 19, 2013 at 11:29 | history | tweeted | twitter.com/#!/StackChristian/status/358186915721261056 | ||
| Jul 17, 2013 at 17:42 | answer | added | Affable Geek | timeline score: 15 | |
| Jul 17, 2013 at 16:52 | comment | added | Double U | Moreover, the question presumes that the written word has more authority than the oral tradition. I argue that religious tradition can just be as valuable orally as it is verbally. | |
| Jul 17, 2013 at 16:47 | comment | added | Double U | I think 1, 4, and 6 are the most invalid reasons. The rest are questionable. It depends on what you mean by "common people". Merchants are part of the common people, yet they can be wealthy if they are good in commerce. In Scandinavian countries, even the lower classes are literate. Well, at least they were literate in runes, so they could carve runestones. | |
| Jul 17, 2013 at 15:50 | comment | added | Mawia | @RyanFrame Someway, you are right. Maybe I should ask all those points separately. It might even fall under "Truth" category but history is not the same like doctrine. Still, I think that someone with good historical knowledge can answer it briefly. | |
| Jul 17, 2013 at 15:41 | history | edited | Mawia | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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| Jul 17, 2013 at 15:39 | history | edited | Narnian | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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| Jul 17, 2013 at 15:23 | comment | added | Ryan Frame | "Not I," said the lazy dog. But the list of possibilities is why I haven't upvoted it. The question would be better phrased by making the claim (possibly with a source) then asking why. You're making unnecessary assumptions then asking for validation for one or more of these assumptions. | |
| Jul 17, 2013 at 15:18 | history | edited | Mawia | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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| Jul 17, 2013 at 15:13 | comment | added | user3331 | To the downvoter: This seems to be a useful question (adding a "some other reason" option might make it better) and providing a comment explaining the downvote is considered good practice. | |
| Jul 17, 2013 at 8:50 | answer | added | Captain Kenpachi | timeline score: 6 | |
| Jul 17, 2013 at 7:08 | history | asked | Mawia | CC BY-SA 3.0 |