Timeline for Why do translations use words like "servants" to mean "slaves"?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
20 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Jan 23, 2023 at 13:36 | comment | added | Terjij Kassal | Was there even a distinction between servants and slaves during Roman times? | |
| Jul 23, 2021 at 3:25 | comment | added | user4951 | Why would a master give slaves allowances if the slaves can't just go to another job? What leverage does the slave have to get allowances? It seems that the slaves are pretty much slave. Yes some masters treat their slaves well. Most don't. | |
| Jul 19, 2021 at 16:04 | comment | added | jaredad7 | It's worth noting that prior to the enlightenment/renaissance era, slaves were generally considered a part of the household and even given a wage. This is especially true in the near east and in Greek and Roman cultures. I want to make it clear I'm not saying these things as a slavery apologist, some do so. These are just matters of historical fact. The delineation between servant and slave is more stark in the modern world than the ancient. Also worth noting is the fact that "servant" is derived from the Latin "servus," which literally means slave. TL;DR translation is hard across cultures. | |
| Jul 18, 2021 at 18:51 | answer | added | Only True God | timeline score: 0 | |
| Sep 24, 2015 at 23:44 | comment | added | user20766 | It's been my understanding that the meaning is that of someone in debt to another, repayment of that debt (although in some special cases, it can never fully be repaid) is repaid in servitude. Beating and injuring these people is prohibited. Forcing them when and how hard to work is prohibited. People read "slave" and see the horrors of plantations, and this certainly isn't the case. | |
| Jul 27, 2015 at 18:28 | comment | added | DJClayworth | @JimThio Unfortunately 'servant' doesn't correspond exactly either. We don't have a word that exactly corresponds to someone in that position. | |
| Jul 27, 2015 at 17:57 | answer | added | brasshat | timeline score: 1 | |
| Jul 27, 2015 at 16:37 | answer | added | ThaddeusB | timeline score: 11 | |
| Apr 17, 2015 at 8:12 | vote | accept | user4951 | ||
| Apr 11, 2015 at 9:56 | history | edited | curiousdannii♦ | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
edited tags; edited title
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| Apr 11, 2015 at 4:16 | answer | added | Dick Harfield | timeline score: 6 | |
| May 13, 2013 at 10:51 | comment | added | user4951 | Well, still proper translation of the scripture to a 20th century english shouldn't use the word servant. | |
| May 9, 2013 at 16:56 | history | tweeted | twitter.com/#!/StackChristian/status/332539616303411200 | ||
| May 9, 2013 at 12:35 | comment | added | Tom Au | I didn't know about the "before the 20th century" part so I found your question useful. Only a strong historian would know these things. | |
| May 9, 2013 at 7:51 | history | edited | Flimzy | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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| May 7, 2013 at 17:51 | comment | added | Narnian | Related: christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/9809/… | |
| May 7, 2013 at 17:50 | history | edited | Narnian | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
added 8 characters in body; edited title
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| May 7, 2013 at 13:40 | comment | added | DJClayworth | What kind of servant gets beaten by his master? Any servant before the 20th century. You are completely looking at this with 20th century eyes and ignoring the historical context. | |
| May 7, 2013 at 6:56 | answer | added | Walter | timeline score: 8 | |
| May 7, 2013 at 6:19 | history | asked | user4951 | CC BY-SA 3.0 |