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Sep 24, 2016 at 17:37 history edited Ken Graham CC BY-SA 3.0
Improved formatting.
Aug 23, 2011 at 23:38 comment added Ray My understanding of the historical background of this passage is that it is implicitly addressing the case of men who were polygamous prior to conversion. In the absence of a divorce (which is disallowed), the man would be ineligible for eldership. So rather than "elders may not have multiple wives, but Joe Christian can marry as many girls as he wants" this is more like "nobody should have multiple wives, but if someone does, he may not be an elder"
Aug 23, 2011 at 23:25 comment added user32 @Studiohack: Seems like a very weak argument to me: If God, through Paul, had intended to set a requirement for all believers, then he would have expressed the requirement as pertaining to all believers.
Aug 23, 2011 at 22:58 comment added studiohack @Pacerier elders are to be an example for other Christian men to follow. Thus, it is my belief that Christians should strive to meet the requirements for an elder.
Aug 23, 2011 at 22:56 comment added Pacerier what about non-elders ?
Aug 23, 2011 at 22:55 history answered studiohack CC BY-SA 3.0