32
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How do Trinitarians explain the almost exclusive use of singular pronouns to refer to God in the Bible?
If I might put this in simple language, the Trinitarian position is that there is one God, and he exists in three persons.
It is entirely correct, grammatically and philosophically, to refer to God in ...
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23
votes
Accepted
What is the Biblical basis for the doctrine of the Trinity consisting of different persons?
General references to there being separate personages in the Godhead.
Luke 3:21-22 (Matthew 3:13-17 similar story/wording)
21 Now when all the people were baptized, it came to pass, that Jesus also ...
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22
votes
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What was Isaac Newton's view of the Trinity?
John Byl, in his article "Newton and the Trinity", paints a clear picture that Newton was non-trinitarian. Newton's published works do not contain clear statements of this nature. In his private ...
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21
votes
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What is the biblical basis for the personhood of the Holy Spirit?
Here are four common defenses of this doctrine:
The masculine pronoun in Greek is applied to the Holy Spirit even when not required by Greek grammar
The Holy Spirit is shown to be in a coordinating ...
19
votes
Accepted
When was the word "trinity" first applied to God in Christianity?
Without question, Theophilus of Antioch (d. 183) is your man. He wrote in Greek:
[God's creations on the first three days--light, sky, and vegetation--] are types of the Trinity [Τριάδος], of God, ...
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18
votes
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What is the earliest use of the phrase "God the Son"?
This question is complicated, of course, by the fact that we must work with translations of the original texts in order to find this wording. However, at least three second-century authors use this ...
18
votes
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Is 1 Corinthians 15:27 problematic for trinitarians?
The Queen of England is greater than me in that she is my Queen and I am her loyal subject.. but we are equal in that we are both human.
My father is greater than me in that he is my father, but we ...
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18
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How do Trinitarians respond to passages in the Bible that seem to clearly distinguish between God and Jesus after his ascension?
First, I will answer the question as posed in the title. The Ascension does not make a difference. Jesus ascended bodily into Heaven, and therefore His humanity also ascended.
Second, as the Father ...
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17
votes
Is 1 Corinthians 15:28 disregarded by trinitarians?
That the Son (in regard to his Deity) should have a relationship with his Father, which is a matter of filial and voluntary subjection, does not mean that he is not equal in Deity to the Father.
Equal ...
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16
votes
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Trinitarian Christianity and Numbers 23:19 - Was Jesus a man?
This is not a very good Trinitarian objection for a number of reasons. First, the incarnation occurred at a definite point in history. As the Nicene/Constantinopolitan creed states, "[He] was made man....
- 4,906
15
votes
What is the Biblical basis for disbelief in the doctrine of the Trinity?
Yes, it's long!
Yes, I know this is a long answer. Sorry about that!
However, given the huge amount of ink (and pixels) that has been expended on the doctrine of the Trinity for almost two thousand ...
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14
votes
Does the divine name YHWH (יַהְוֶה) apply equally to all Persons of the Trinity? (Catholic/Nicene perspective)
For the Catholic Church and other Nicene churches (the Eastern Orthodox, the Oriental Orthodox, the Armenian Orthodox, the Assyrians; as well as the majority of Protestants), the divine name YHWH (...
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14
votes
How do Trinitarians explain the almost exclusive use of singular pronouns to refer to God in the Bible?
The Christian who experiences the presence of the Holy Spirit within himself, that is to say within his own spirit, experiences the fact of unity of spirit - that unity of person which joins himself ...
- 21.8k
13
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John 1:18 - "No one has ever seen God" - How do Trinitarians reconcile this scripture with the belief that the Lord Jesus Christ is God?
From a Trinitarian standpoint there is nothing to reconcile.
As with most things, the answer is found in the context. The whole of John 1:18 reads:
"No one has seen God at any time; the only ...
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13
votes
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If Jesus is God then how could he die?
This is where the doctrine of the hypostatic union is essential. Jesus the Son of God is one person, but he has two natures: the divine nature, and a human nature. The two natures cannot be divided, ...
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13
votes
Is 1 Corinthians 15:27 problematic for trinitarians?
No problem for Trinitarians at all.
The context of 1 Corinthians 15:27 is actually a big problem for Unitarians.
1 Corinthians 15:27-28
[27]For he hath put all things under his feet. But when ...
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12
votes
Accepted
What is the earliest extrabiblical teaching of baptism using a trinitarian formula?
Two early church writings can be seen to address this issue: the Didache and Justin Martyr's First Apology.
Didache
Early evidence for a trinitarian formula in baptism might be found in the Didache, ...
11
votes
Are Father, Son, and Holy Spirit explicitly identified as "persons" in any writings directly associated with the Nicene Creed?
Yes. I have been able to find two letters, one related to the calling of the Council of Nicea and the other related to the judgment of the Council of Constantinople, where the word "persons" is used ...
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11
votes
Who do Trinitarians believe is the Apostle Peter's God?
Peter's belief about who God is VS Him addressing one person that is God
Obviously with the verses you have cited, Peter is addressing the Father, one person that is truly God, does this mean that ...
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11
votes
Can Muslims be considered Muslims and Christians at the same time in the sight of God?
What are specifically Christian teachings
Most religions agree with Jesus's teachings such as loving God, loving fellow human beings, forgiving enemies, almsgiving for the poor and downtrodden, ...
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10
votes
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Does the triune God have will by nature, or by persons?
The short answer to the O.P.’s question is that their will proceeds from the Divine Nature. There is only one Divine Will, and each Person wills with the very same Will.
It is misleading to say that ...
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10
votes
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When in the development of trinitarian doctrine was the word "persons" first applied to God?
Tertullian: Earliest extant use of term
Tertullian (155 - 240) was, famously, the first Latin writer to use the word "trinity" in his anti-Sabellian treatise Against Praxeas. It also contains the ...
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10
votes
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Why does the Eastern Orthodox Church dislike the idea that the Spirit proceeds from the Son?
I don't think I could improve upon the summary at the Orthodox Wiki:
Objections on doctrinal grounds
It is contrary to Scripture, particularly in John 15:26: "But when the Helper comes, whom I ...
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10
votes
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According to Reformed churches, is the trinity a finalized doctrine?
Yes and no. That is, in simple terms:
No, the doctrine of the Trinity is not "finalized" or "completed" – Reformed theologians regularly debate the intricacies of this doctrine
Yes, the doctrine of ...
10
votes
Since St. Irenaeus was not a Trinitarian was/is he damned?
By its very nature, a dogma1 makes its deniers officially heretics (ipso facto at the least) only because of its dogmatic, unequivocal nature as taught unambiguously as the faith of the Church, by ...
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10
votes
Accepted
How do Trinitarians respond to the objection that God cannot be a man based on Hosea 11:9?
Hosea 11:9 says "I am God and not a man." But it says neither "I am God and cannot become a man" nor "I am God and cannot be a man", which the OP has put in the title ...
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10
votes
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According to Trinitarian theology, how is Jesus God when he sits at the right hand of the true God?
Through an understanding of the doctrine of the Trinity is the best and seemingly only way to truly understand the mystery. Keeping in mind of course that it is in fact a mystery and will never truly ...
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10
votes
According to Trinitarians who believe Philippians 2:6 says Jesus is God, why did Paul add the word 'form' ('morphe')?
ος εν μορφη θεου υπαρχων ουχ αρπαγμον ηγησατο το ειναι ισα θεω
Philippians 2:6 [TR - undisputed]
... who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God ... [KJV]
... who, ...
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10
votes
How do those who hold Jesus = God in the Trinitarian sense account for Paul's reticence to state this clearly and consistently?
To summarize, your question is twofold: In the Pauline Corpus...
Why wasn't Paul bold (or why was he reticent)?
Why wasn't Paul clear about Jesus' Divinity?
Let's look at question 2 first:
Why wasn'...
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10
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According to Protestants who hold that belief in Trinitarianism is necessary for salvation, what happens to those who assent but don't understand?
It is generally acknowledged that the precise nature of God is beyond human comprehension. God is infinite, and all humans are limited, fallible beings. He is much more than our limited understanding ...
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