11

Short Answer: In the least, Augustine did not approve of Jerome's preferred translation of the Septuagint (he actually penned two, at least in part), specifically. At most he may have thought it a sin to even use it as scripture. His greatest fear is that it would lead to apparent discrepancies in opinion between Latin and Greek churches and grievously harm ...


5

In case of Mary, the angel refers to her, as you have said, as one who has been filled with grace, and the church teaches that she received a special grace at her conception which allowed her to be born free of the effects of original sin. This grace did not preserve her from sin, per se, but this grace made it possible and so she continued in her ...


4

This isn't a full-blown answer to your question, but instead a partial one. I suppose one would have to write some sort of magnum opus to answer all three of your questions in a way that does justice to them. But as a sort of beginning, I do know that translators over time have moved away from away from the Vulgate because of its emphasis of Mary in places ...


2

We must start by referring to the original text of Heb 1:3a, which, leaving untranslated the last word, is: "Who, being the radiance of his glory and the exact representation of his hypostasis," where the text translated as "the exact representation of his hypostasis" is "charaktēr tēs hypostaseōs autou". With this in mind, the short answer to the ...


2

Are Catholics allowed to entertain that the Old Vulgate might contains errors? The Old Vulgate Bible translation of St. Jerome is free of errors on faith and moral. Like any translation there may be technical error of nuance of given words or expressions that may have been translated better. Pope Pius XII declared the Vulgate as "free from error ...


1

Pope Pius XII explains in his 1943 encyclical on biblical studies, Divino afflante Spiritu, §21: this special authority or as they say, authenticity of the Vulgate was not affirmed by the Council [of Trent] particularly for critical reasons, but rather because of its legitimate use in the Churches throughout so many centuries; by which use indeed the same ...


1

In this case, in quo is a very literal translation of the Greek ἐφ' ᾧ, which is preposition ἐπῐ́ ruling the dative article ᾧ. In Latin, ἐπῐ́ translates to in. As Quintillian said, "Noster sermo articulos non desiderat", our language does not use articles, so the article has to become something else. Here it becomes a relative pronoun, and goes to ablative to ...


1

it is reasoned by Catholics that the virgin Mary was sinless because she is gratia plena, "full of grace." Actually, most Catholic theologians reason that her divine maternity is her greatest prerogative (cf. Mother of the Saviour and Our Interior Life ch. 1), not her fullness of grace. Her divine maternity is the reason for all her other privileges, ...


1

tl;dr: Augustine: "Hey Jerome, please don't translate from a source if people can't verify your translation! The internet hasn't been invented yet." St Augustine wasn't too happy about it. In fact, he was seriously concerned it might damage the credibility of the Latin church and Jerome, who he liked (that appears not to have been mutual). Short ...


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