10 votes
Accepted

What does it mean that "the two natures of Christ cannot be separated"?

I generally write from a reformed perspective, but I don't think there's anything in this post that other Christians (Oriental Orthodox and Church of the East aside) would disagree with. The doctrine ...
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8 votes

What is the biblical basis for Jesus having two natures?

The two natures of Jesus Christ is a fairly natural conclusion when we consider what the New Testament says about him. Firstly, it's clear that Jesus has a human nature: he has a physical body, he ...
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  • 18k
6 votes
Accepted

In Reformed Theology, what are seen as the implications of Traducianism versus Creationism (of the soul)?

First, let's have some slightly more in-depth definitions. Charles Hodge describes what traducianists believe as follows: Traducianists on the one hand deny that the soul is created; and on the ...
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6 votes
Accepted

Old Testament Evidence of the Hypostatic Union

In the Old Testament God does take physical forms however the incarnation of the Messiah is unique. Hypostatic union means human and divine natures united in one person. It would be misleading to say ...
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  • 717
6 votes

According to the Catholic Church, did Jesus have faith or hope?

1. Jesus enjoyed the Beatific Vision from his conception. From the moment of his conception Jesus enjoyed the Beatific Vision, i.e. his human soul saw the divine essence with an intuitive vision and ...
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  • 1,514
6 votes
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Historical Apologetic used by 7th Century Christians towards Early Muslims Regarding the Hypostatic Union and Jesus' Title "Son of God"

James White discusses this in What Every Christian Needs to Know About the Qur'an. Here is the relevant quote with some emphasis added: One early source, the Tanwīr al-Miqbās min Tafsīr Ibn ’...
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  • 975
5 votes
Accepted

If the second person of the triune god bears witness of himself, why is it not true?

First, lets look at the setting of the entire passage. Jesus was talking to Jewish leaders, and they were accusing him for his claims of equality with God (John 5: 17- 23). This verse has to be looked ...
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  • 66
5 votes

How can the Son not know what the Father knows?

The answer to this question hinges on how trinitarians understand the incarnation of Christ. And while there is broad (though not quite universal) agreement with the Chalcedonian Definition (451), ...
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5 votes

Does the Catholic Church teach that Jesus' Human Nature was created?

I think this answer is needed to avoid confusions. The short answer to the title is “yes”: Christ’s human nature is created. (Indeed, it could not be otherwise: the only nature that could possibly be ...
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5 votes

Does the Chalcedonian Definition mean Christ has two minds?

These are deep questions that are difficult to answer, but I'll give it a shot. Most of what I'm going to say is derived from Oliver D. Crisp's book Divinity and Humanity. How far is this model to be ...
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  • 340
5 votes

Did Jesus definitely say he was a man?

Yes, Jesus said he was a man (John 8:40). Jesus is referred to as the “Son of Man” 88 times in the New Testament. God called the prophet Ezekiel “son of man” 93 times. God was simply calling Ezekiel ...
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5 votes

What is the biblical basis for Jesus having two natures?

The writer to the Hebrews clearly declares the humanity of Christ for ‘in all things, it behoved him to be made like unto his brethren’, Heb 2:7, there being nothing of humanity to which he was a ...
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  • 19.1k
5 votes

Which verses of the NT explicitly state that Jesus was born with a human mind in a human body?

It can be shown that Jesus Christ was (and is) in possession of a human soul (1). The apostle says that 'we have the mind of Christ', 1 Corinthians 2:16, indicating that the mind of Christ (as a ...
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5 votes

Is the Hypostatic Union a contradiction?

Is it contradictory to claim that Christ was both fully man and fully God at the same time? No, because Jesus being God could operate under both natures at the same time. The easiest way to understand ...
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4 votes

Why must the hypostatic union be viewed as taking place at Jesus' conception?

The doctrine of the Trinity says that God is three persons in one being. One of those persons, the second person of the Trinity, took on flesh and became a human, the man Jesus. If I understand what ...
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  • 18k
4 votes

Why does Jesus have to be fully God and fully man? Is it not sufficient to be the son of God and fully man?

If I were to continue being true to form, I would answer your question in too many paragraphs, most of which would not be read. Let me go against type, then, and offer a two-paragraph answer to your ...
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  • 9,008
4 votes

Was Calvin a Nestorian?

No, Calvin was not Nestorian. This can be concluded on the strength of the following evidence: His defense of the Chalcedonian Definition and rejection of Nestorius Related to the above, reformed ...
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4 votes

According to the Catholic Church, did Jesus have faith or hope?

I think I am correct in stating that the Roman Catholic Church, as well as the Eastern Orthodox Church, hold to the belief that Christ was both truly God and truly man (I am a convert from the former ...
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  • 5,382
4 votes

According to Jehovah’s Witnesses, in what way is Jesus human?

The Jehovah’s Witness religion teaches that there was a time when God was utterly alone and decided to create, as his first creation, a being known in the Bible both as the Word of God, and Michael ...
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  • 16.4k
4 votes

Did Jesus definitely say he was a man?

As Dr McGowan points out Jesus is frequently referred to as a man, and it is an important part of most Christian doctrine. During His time on Earth it is unlikely that anyone ever doubted that He was ...
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  • 7,108
4 votes

What is the right word, Jesus assumed a human soul or have a created rational soul?

Is Jesus human soul created or assumed? Jesus, at the Incarnation, assumed a human soul:[1] Because "human nature was assumed, not absorbed",97 in the mysterious union of the Incarnation, the ...
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  • 141
4 votes

What is the biblical basis for Jesus having two natures?

Not wishing to reinvent the wheel, I would point to two answers that soundly answer your questions. Curiousdannii flagged up some deviations from 1st century biblical Christianity that got going, ...
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  • 16.4k
4 votes

Does eternal functional subordination replace the two natures theory?

To my mind, the two issues are orthogonal. The questions of the relationship between the Father and Son and whether or not the Son is eternally generated, whether the Father has authority over the Son,...
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  • 18k
3 votes

Old Testament Evidence of the Hypostatic Union

The Old Testament Christophanies (like the man appearing to Joshua in Joshua 5 as the "Commander of the army of the Lord") are clues that God might do this (become a man), but these should be combined ...
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3 votes

Is it Proper to State that Chalcedonianism is a Moderate Position In-between Nestorianism and Monophysitism?

Nestorians don't believe in two wills and two subjects. Church of the East who has been mislabelled as Nestorians predominantly live in Syria, Iran, and India is a church from the Apostolic time who ...
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3 votes
Accepted

Is God the Son's divine nature human?

No, according to the doctrine of the Hypostatic Union, the divine nature did not become fully human, or even partially human. From the Formula of Chalcedon: one and the same Christ, Son, Lord, ...
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  • 3,538
3 votes
Accepted

What is the nature of Dyothelitism according to the Council of Chalcedon?

The Definition produced by the Council of Chalcedon in 451 is an interesting text because it wasn't intended to stand alone; it was produced by people who knew well that they were part of a series of ...
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  • 18k
3 votes

What are the major problems that Chalcedonians have with Miaphysite Christology?

My understanding is that Divine nature and human nature cannot 'merge' but are united in the Person of Christ. The union is in his Person, not in an attribute : 'nature'. I assume that I would be ...
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