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10

Hosea 11:9 says "I am God and not a man." But it says neither "I am God and cannot become a man" nor "I am God and cannot be a man", which the OP has put in the title of the question.


7

There are two or three passages in the Old Testament which declare something similar (Numbers 23:19 and 1 Samuel 15:29). In each case God is distinguishing himself against sinful humanity. The point is that it is his actions which are different from a man's. At the same time, Jesus himself said "God is Spirit" (John 4:24). The Bible consistently ...


5

First off, we can't interpret "love" in the mushy Valentine's-Day sitcom sense we imagine today. "Love" here is a lot more significant and difficult than that. Love in the Old Testament sense is not divorced from actions. Loving actions don't spring from love; they are an inherent aspect of love. As wax eagle points out in the comments above, sexual ...


4

The Complete Jewish Bible you are looking at (notably, not a Jewish translation at all) is following the numbering scheme of the Masoretic Text where that text corresponds with 2:16-17. In most Christian English translations, this is labeled 2:14-15. (JPS Tanakh and Judaica Press Tanach also use the Masoretic numbering.) The difference arises because the ...


3

God was manifested in flesh [TR - KJV : 1 Timothy 3:16] Jesus Christ is come in the flesh [1 John 4:2 KJV] That God is manifested in flesh and that Jesus Christ is come in the flesh is not at all the same as to say that 'God is a man'. The scripture, in the original Greek, is exceeding careful in this aspect and although I support the KJV yet still I have ...


1

God, including Jesus, was in no way human at the time the Old Testament was written. It was only after the incarnation that Jesus took on flesh. However, in Old Testament times there were theophanies/Christophanies, where God/Christ appeared as a burning bush, an angel, or a man. But though those things were visible, Christ did not take on human nature at ...


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