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4 votes

Why was homoousios used in the Nicene Creed?

The Nicene Creed is the official doctrine of most Christian churches—the Catholic Church, Eastern Orthodox Church, Oriental Orthodox Churches, Church of the East, and Anglican Communion, as well as ...
Nigel J's user avatar
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4 votes

Why has the phrase "from the ousia of the Father" been omitted from the Nicene Creed?

We believe in one God, the Father almighty, maker of all things visible and invisible; And in one Lord, Jesus Christ, the Son of God, begotten from the Father, only-begotten, that is, from the ...
Mike Borden's user avatar
4 votes

In the 325 Nicene Creed, what is the meaning of "of" in the phrase, "He is of another substance or essence?"

That phrase was written both as a condemnation of individuals within the Church, and religious groups that maintained that Jesus Christ was "of another substance or essence". As you rightly ...
Anne's user avatar
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4 votes

According to trinitarians (or binitarians): How can God the Son be “appointed heir of all things“ (Hebrews 1:2) if „all belongs to Him“ already?

Christ is "heir of all things", but he has not yet inherited all things. Currently, it is Satan that rules this world (as proclaimed every day in the news headlines): Now is the judgment of ...
Ray Butterworth's user avatar
3 votes

Is consubstantiality and homoousis the same thing?

They should be taken as meaning the same thing, but the Greek meaning was somewhat complicated when put into Latin, which was further complicated when that Latin was later put into English. The ...
Anne's user avatar
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3 votes

Is the biblical term "God" a denotation for a specific lifeform, or a title?

In the Bible, the word 'God' predominantly identifies the eternal Spirit who created everything. Sometimes it refers to pagan ideas of their gods, which they give names to (such as Ashtoreth etc). But ...
Anne's user avatar
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3 votes

What evidence is there that the original framers of the 325 Nicene Creed intended it to be read in subordinationist ways?

'I and the Father are one', John 10:30, and 'My Father is greater than I', John 14:28, express both equality (of nature) and subordination (in relationship) which the Nicene Fathers fully appreciated ...
Nigel J's user avatar
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2 votes

According to trinitarians (or binitarians): How can God the Son be “appointed heir of all things“ (Hebrews 1:2) if „all belongs to Him“ already?

If the eternal Son of God had remained in heaven (as the Word of God, who is God, and who made everything that was made John 1:1-3), the matter of inheritance would never have arisen. It only arose ...
Anne's user avatar
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2 votes

According to trinitarians (or binitarians): How can God the Son be “appointed heir of all things“ (Hebrews 1:2) if „all belongs to Him“ already?

The writer of the Book of Hebrews explains the "superiority" of the Son in various ways to show us why He is heir of all things. This does not "preclude" Him from already being the ...
Mr. Bond's user avatar
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2 votes

Should a Protestant accept the Nicene Creed?

Most Protestants accept the Nicene Creed. It's one of the most accepted creeds in the Christian world. Those that do include: Anglicans and Episcopalians Lutherans Methodists Christian Reformed The ...
DJClayworth's user avatar
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2 votes

Should a Protestant accept the Nicene Creed?

Luther is historically credited with the idea of "Sola Scriptura" (although earlier people used the principle extensively such as Wycliffe, and others). However, when Luther concluded his ...
Dottard's user avatar
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2 votes

According to Trinitarianism, is God - strictly speaking - a person?

The answer on GotQuestions is not an accurate expression of Trinitarianism. I would encourage the study of Athanasius on the subject as being more representative. The term 'God' - Theos in Greek, ...
Nigel J's user avatar
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2 votes

Why was homoousios used in the Nicene Creed?

Why was homoousios used in the Nicene Creed? The short answer is: The dogma of the Trinity was at stake! Just because ὁμοούσιον does not appear in the Bible not in any other Creeds prior to Nicaea ...
Ken Graham's user avatar
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1 vote

Why was homoousios not mentioned for 20 years after Nicaea?

Absence of evidence is not evidence of absence, but the OP does raise an interesting question. The answer, I suggest, lies in the realm of imperial politics. Constantine's motive in calling the ...
Dan Fefferman's user avatar
1 vote

Is consubstantiality and homoousis the same thing?

"Consubstantial" is an English translation of homoousios so yes they are meant to convey the same meaning, namely having the same substance. However, underlying this fact there is a problem: ...
Dan Fefferman's user avatar
1 vote

Should a Protestant accept the Nicene Creed?

It's a very interesting question and after reading Bishop Hansen (Bishop Jon Paul Christian Hansen?) I question why the Protestant church accepts the creeds so readily. However, against the backdrop ...
M__'s user avatar
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1 vote
Accepted

According to Trinitarianism, is God - strictly speaking - a person?

Boethius is cited by Aquinas defining person as "an individual substance of a rational nature." ST I Q29 Given this definition, since Trinitarians hold that all three persons are one Divine ...
jaredad7's user avatar
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1 vote

What evidence is there that the original framers of the 325 Nicene Creed intended it to be read in subordinationist ways?

Subordination in the Nicene Creed You ask What evidence is there that the original framers of the 325 Nicene Creed intended it to be read in subordinationist ways? The short answer is that the ...
bradimus's user avatar
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1 vote

Did the Cappadocians teach one or two substances?

Basil of Caesarea taught Three Substances. Summary Basil was elected bishop of Caesarea in 370. In some accounts, he was the architect of the pro-Nicene triumph. In the traditional Trinity doctrine, ...
Andries's user avatar
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1 vote

Should homoousion in the Nicene Creed be translated as "same substance" or as “one substance?”

The authors of the creed definitely meant that God and Christ are one substance. Remember that the creed was formulated against Arius, who claimed that Christ was of a similar substance with the ...
jaredad7's user avatar
  • 3,756
1 vote

Where did substance language enter the Trinity debate?

The term ὁμοούσιον (homoousion) predates Dionysius Bishop of Alexandria (r. 247-265 A.D.), who wrote in response to a c. 262 A.D. letter to him by Pope St. Dionysius (259-268 A.D.): I have not found ...
Geremia's user avatar
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