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16

It is simply Greek that has been written in Roman letters. The city of Rome was essentially bilingual from around the time of Caesar Augustus until at least the third or fourth century A.D.: the people spoke mostly vulgar Latin or common (Koine) Greek. Greek was the more common language among the poor, who formed the majority of the ranks of the Church at ...


16

I can't find this doxology in the lords prayer as recorded in scripture It is in the King James Version: And lead us not into temptation, but deliver us from evil: For thine is the kingdom, and the power, and the glory, for ever. Amen. but the underlying Greek is missing in some manuscripts. Metzger's Textual Commentary on the Greek New Testament (...


13

Having chased up the account provided in the answer that follows, I now find there is a full-blown and properly specialist study of precisely this question. Gratifyingly, the main contours are the same, and it looks like Benecke is indeed one of the "heroes" of the tale. Interested readers should therefore consult: Benjamin Schliesser, "‘Exegetical Amnesia’ ...


12

It is highly unlikely. I will address the OP's commentary/questions in turn: The reason why I ask this is because I can't really seem to find much proof of the age of the Septuagint. I offer the following pedantic quibble only because it is directly relevant to OP's concern: when considering the historical creation of the Greek Jewish scriptures, it is ...


10

The Catholic Church does indeed usually refer to itself just as "The Catholic Church". That is what it's Wikipedia article calls it (Wikipedia usually names all organizations according to what they call themselves). Many Catholic-related organizations just use the word "Catholic" in their names - CAFOD is an example; Catholic School boards are another. The ...


9

As a supplement to David's answer, and in response to your second bullet in particular, let me offer the following. In "ΠΙΣΤΙΣ ΧΡΙΣΤΟΥ: Witness of the Fathers" (1994), Roy A. Harrisville reports on an examination of all the occurrences of this and similar phrases in the Greek Fathers. He lists a number of ambiguous cases, several examples of subjective ...


9

Yes, if you read "because" as indicating a causal relationship, no if it's just giving the reason or purpose. "Because of our justification" might suggest that some action done by us is the cause of the resurrection. That's a problem for Reformed theology, and probably not just for us either, as it's a bit logically and temporally difficult. If we read "...


9

The commonly held understanding is partially correct, but overstated. In reality, the semantic range of the words is broader. Agape It is true that the words ἀγαπάω (agapaó) and ἀγάπη (agapé) came to mean something like "the highest form of love," but this was primarily due later Christian usage of the term. At the time of the New Testament's writing, ...


9

1. Question Restatement : Is there textual / literary evidence that "Jesus" is a name derived from "Zeus"? What is the Etymology of the Name, "Jesus"? 2. Answer - The Names Jesus and Zeus are not Related Etymologically : The Greek Septuagint Translation of the Hebrew Old Testament is the clearest evidence that the name "Jesus" is absolutely a ...


9

The language has certainly changed. As such, translations into modern Greek are used. Today's Greek Bible is often used, and translations by the Hellenic Bible Society have the Blessing and Approval of the Ecumenical Patriarchate, the Holy Synod of the Greek Church and the Patriarchates. There are other translations of the Bible into modern Greek, and it ...


9

A Catholic priest, Father William Saunders, answers here: Who Added The Doxology? To summarize: The doxology is very old, going back to the first century. To quote the article: In the early Church, the Christians living in the eastern half of the Roman Empire added the doxology "for thine..." to the Gospel text of the Our Father when reciting the ...


9

Actually none of the above. The original Greek manuscripts were written in all capital letters. The minuscule script (which evolved into the Greek lowercase) was developed only during the 9th-10th centuries. Capitalising "Holy Ghost" does not imply Trinitarian theology, all it says is that the translators think it is a proper noun. There are many ...


8

As another answer alluded to, Jesus almost certainly was speaking Aramaic, not Greek when he spoke these words. As such, it is probably a mistake to automatically assume that Jesus was making a philosophical point by using two different words based on the Greek. Instead, we should see what explanations are available as to how the Greek came from the ...


8

You will find the among some KJV-Onlyists the assertion that the 1611 KJV Bible was directly inspired by God. That cuts away any need for them to explain why the KJV can be considered the infallible word of God while its immediate predecesors should be viewed with scepticism. For example, Peter Ruckman: The text of the A.V. 1611, in Genesis 27, is the ...


8

I am quoting from Young's Concordance and therefore looking at the KJV :- Κτιστης Ktistes 'Creator' occurs once. ... served the creature more than the Creator [Romans 1:25] Κτιζο, ktizo - the verb to create - occurs fourteen times. But neither protoktizo nor protoktistos nor protoktistes ever occur in the (KJV) bible. My 1,700 page special American ...


6

I looked into Lampe (ed.)"A Patristic Greek Lexicon", Oxford University Press, 1961. It makes four mentions for the use of hodos in this sense: Eusebius of Caesarea, Ecclesiastical History, Book 5, Chapter 1,48. (Migne 20.428A) Chrysostom, Homily 19 on the Acts of the Apostoles (Migne 60.152) Ammonius of Alexandria, On the Acts of the Apostoles 14:14 (...


6

The most obvious answer is Jesus' words to his disciples at the Last Supper, in Matthew's version: this is my blood of the covenant, which will be shed on behalf of many for the forgiveness of sins. (Matthew 26:28, New American Bible Revised Edition)


6

The reason why Jesus is pronounced with the J sound we have in English today is because the letter I as a consonant in early Old French shifted to the J pronunciation we have in English today through palatization and affrication. The pronunciation of Biblical names in English that begin with a J was taken over from French in early Middle English. So even ...


6

There are two parts for this: First part: The Catholic Church ('C' as capital) is that group of churches in communion with the pope. If a group isn’t in communion with the pope, it isn’t part of the Catholic Church. Within the Catholic Church there are a number of individual churches, sometimes called rites. One of these is the Roman rite or Roman ...


6

The earliest use of οὐσία to mean the substance or essence of a thing is by Aristotle in his Κατηγορίαι, though Aristotle attributes its earlier use to Plato. Justin Martyr comments on Aristotle's description of the nature of the Divine, confirming that Aristotle (along with Plato) uses the word in the manner described as early as the 4th century BC. So it ...


6

The Nestle-Aland/UBS text is standard. This is an edited text which shows what the editors think the original text was most likely to be based on the evidence they have researched. The NA and UBS names refer to two editions of the same base text. They have occasional differences in punctuation or spelling, but the main difference is their apparatus. The main ...


5

Acts 25:14, "it is hard for thee to kick against the pricks," is a direct quotation from a play by Euripides (d. 406 BCE), the Bacchae, with Jesus speaking instead of the Greek god Dionysus. Euripides had used the plural ('pricks') for reason of meter, and Acts uses the same plural, although it would normally be a singular. In his own epistles, Paul never ...


5

The earliest mention of controversy appears to be in the writings of Origen of Alexandria, in the third century. He indicates that some debate already existed on the matter in his time, and he attempts to resolve it by saying that the lack of the article implies that the Word of God is inferior to and dependent on the "True God": We next notice ...


5

The Englishman's Greek New Testament, available widely, has the Stephens Text of 1550 and an interlinear, literal, English translation. It is one of a few almost identical Greek texts which are commonly called the Received Text or the Textus Receptus. This is the Greek text behind the Authorised Version (the King James Version) and is the Greek text used by ...


5

The earliest Biblical manuscripts were almost certainly written on papyrus. We know of over 130 Biblical papyri dating from the second to the eighth century. These were written in majuscule case, and I think usually without spaces or much punctuation. They were not written in the uncial script as it was developed only in the fourth century for use on ...


5

Here is an answer from a Jewish perspective. The Bible calls G-d Y-h-v-h, which is called “the Tetragrammaton,” which means a four-letter word. While the Tetragrammaton appears on Torah scrolls, even today, Jews say it as Adonai whenever they read the Torah (more on that later). Many think that this is the name of G-d in the Hebrew Bible, but this is not ...


4

From the works of Philo we can see how he saw the logos, or word/wisdom directly and try to compare a bit with Plato and with Christ. But the divine word which is above these does not come into any visible appearance, inasmuch as it is not like to any of the things that come under the external senses, but is itself an image of God, the most ancient of all ...


4

I will attempt1 to answer Is this an accurate translation? and leave the liturgical question to someone else. First the text for reference: Ἀναστάσεως ἡμέρα, καὶ ἡ ἀρχὴ δεξιὰ, καὶ λαμπρυνθῶμεν τῇ πανηγύρει, καὶ ἀλλήλους περιπτυξώμεθα. It is the Day of the Resurrection, and my Beginning has good auspices. Let us then keep the Festival with ...


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