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19 votes
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Was Lazarus in a coma?

The ambiguity of Jesus' initial answer confused the disciples so he elaborated: 11 After saying these things, he said to them, “Our friend Lazarus has fallen asleep, but I go to awaken him.” 12 The ...
Paul Chernoch's user avatar
17 votes
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What does Catholic Church say about the post-resurrection wound marks of Jesus?

St. Thomas Aquinas addresses the question of "Whether Christ's body ought to have risen with its scars?" in Summa Theologica III q. 54 a. 4. He gives five reasons (c.): It was fitting for Christ's ...
Geremia's user avatar
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15 votes

How do Trinitarians explain that Jesus himself claims He is a man who has heard things from God at John 8:40?

It's a common misapprehension that Trinitarians do not believe the Jesus was a man. However they do believe that. The core of Trinitarian belief is that Jesus is both Man and God. Also God the Son ...
DJClayworth's user avatar
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15 votes
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If all persons of the Trinity have the same/a united will what does Jesus mean in John 6:38?

In mainstream Trinitarian theology, the Father, Son and Holy Spirit have one Divine Will but Christ is true God and true Man and hence has two wills, a human will and a divine will. This was ...
eques's user avatar
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12 votes

How do Trinitarians who argue the 'ego eimi' at John 8:58 ought to be translated 'I AM' explain the lack of reactions to the same phrase?

The literal meaning of "ego eimi" is simply "I am" (Ego = I; eimi = am). It is not "I am he" or "I am the one" or so on. That is, the original Greek contains no ...
eques's user avatar
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12 votes

Why not "Word is God"? Why past tense? Does it mean word was god initially but not anymore?

Because past tenses in English Ignoring the Greek, it's the only viable English sentence construction when discussing a past event. If I was the soccer club president in 2020 when we built the new ...
AncientGiantPottedPlant's user avatar
12 votes
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Under the laws of which regime was Jesus sentenced to death on the cross?

Under the laws of which regime was Jesus sentenced to death on the cross? The Jews tried to condemn Jesus to death for breaking their own religious laws. But Pilate initially rebuffed them saying: “...
Ken Graham's user avatar
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12 votes

How can trinitarians profess co-equality when Jesus said the Father was greater?

One of the classic statements is to be found in the words of the Athanasian Creed (which I'm finding in the 1662 Anglican Prayer Book); "Equal to the Father, as touching his Godhead: And inferior ...
Stephen Disraeli's user avatar
11 votes

What is the biblical basis for identifying the Lazarus Jesus raised from the dead and the Lazarus in the story of the rich man and Lazarus?

The earliest Christians' knowledge of Lazarus came not from the Gospel accounts, but rather from personal acquaintance or acquaintance with those who knew Lazarus. In short, they knew Lazarus ...
guest37's user avatar
  • 5,688
10 votes

What is the biblical basis for identifying the Lazarus Jesus raised from the dead and the Lazarus in the story of the rich man and Lazarus?

I think taken together the Gospels do make us think about this possibility. God has inspired not just the texts of each Biblical book in isolation, but in relation to each other. Lazarus himself is ...
curiousdannii's user avatar
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10 votes

The Mormon Church teaches that Joseph Smith saw God the Father and His Son. How do you reconcile this when the Bible says the Father cannot be seen?

To get this out of the way first, yes Joseph Smith indeed claims to have seen God the Father, and Jesus Christ, in what is called the First Vision: Joseph Smith—History 1:17 17 [...] When the light ...
kutschkem's user avatar
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9 votes
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7 mentions of night in Gospel of John

Well spotted. I think you are onto something here. The number seven is popular in John's Gospel. There are seven signs, seven "I am" sayings, the woman at the well had five husbands plus one who ...
Andrew Shanks's user avatar
9 votes
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Why does John the Evangelist NOT record Jesus' response to Pilate's query on Truth?

What appears in English texts as three words and a question mark "What is truth?" may well have been spoken dismissively and rhetorically rather than as a genuine query. Jesus has just ...
Mike Borden's user avatar
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8 votes

Reason for drawing water at unusual time

This is a quite fascinating question, where we can speculate to our hearts' content! First, it must be pointed out that the New Living Translation you have quoted is dogmatic in its assertion that it ...
Andrew Shanks's user avatar
8 votes
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In what way is the Son of God "one with the Father"?

The Trinitarian position on this is pretty straight forward. Hard to wrap your mind around, maybe. A mystery, sure. But the same basic idea is held by most Trinitarians, especially Protestant and ...
Caleb's user avatar
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8 votes

How do Trinitarians explain John 17:3?

That scripture verse that you mention was used by Arius to maintain that Jesus was not of same nature as Father. However, his objection was resolved. St. Thomas explains the difficulty you mention in ...
Thom's user avatar
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8 votes
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Does John's Gospel explicitly state that it was written by the disciple John?

No, the book of John does not explicitly state that it was written by the disciple John. However, there is a worthy discussion to be had about the combination of external and internal evidence that ...
Alex Strasser's user avatar
8 votes

If Jesus is "a god" would not Jehovah’s Witnesses be polytheists?

Do Jehovah’s Witnesses consider themselves to be polytheists? No, because they do not worship Jesus. They worship only Jehovah God. Jesus is not the Almighty God, but is merely “a god” who was ...
Lesley's user avatar
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8 votes
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While on the cross, was Jesus abandoned by every human?

He was in the world, and the world was made through him, yet the world did not know him. He came to his own, and his own people did not receive him. But to all who did receive him, who believed in his ...
Mike Borden's user avatar
  • 21.1k
8 votes

Do any Trinitarian denominations teach from John 1 with, 'In the beginning was Jesus'?

I am going to go out on a limb here to answer without external reference (which I may add later) that the reason Trinitarian organizations who sponsored those Bible translations didn't use "Jesus&...
GratefulDisciple's user avatar
7 votes

Why did Jesus use the expression, "very truly I tell you"?

The Phrase As retained in the Latin Vulgate, and therefore the Douay-Rheims ('the Catholic KJV'), but usually obscured in most English translations, Jesus is actually saying the vast, vast majority ...
Sola Gratia's user avatar
  • 8,420
7 votes

Was the near-stoning of the adulterous woman something to be considered common practice, or was it strictly to trick Jesus?

In short, the argument you heard is sound. In John 18:31, the Jewish leaders make it clear they are unable to execute anyone by Roman law: So Pilate said to them, "Take Him yourselves, and judge ...
Zenon's user avatar
  • 1,891
7 votes
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Do any denominations use the full form of INRI?

Do any denominations use the full form of INRI? The short answer is yes. First of all, there are several denominations that have the tradition of have of displaying crucifixes in their church, such ...
Ken Graham's user avatar
  • 74.5k
7 votes

What is the biblical basis for the logos in John 1:1-3 not being Jesus (yet)?

Edit: while I still believe the trajectory discussed below is valuable, and appreciate the votes, I believe the other info in this answer is important: https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/a/66370/...
Al Brown's user avatar
  • 602
7 votes

What is a Trinitarian explanation of how God can be with Himself?

That the "the Word [the Son] was with (apud, πρὸς) God [the Father]" means that the Father and Son are distinct Divine Persons yet inseparably united (since God is supremely simple/one). St. ...
Geremia's user avatar
  • 41.4k
7 votes
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Did the women disciples of Jesus go to his tomb on Sunday morning to perform an optional Jewish ritual?

In early Jewish beliefs, the tomb would have remained open for three days, but no longer as the body would have decayed and begun to stink. The tomb, however, was not immediately closed over the dead....
SLM's user avatar
  • 15k
7 votes

How do those who interpret John 10:30 as a claim to full divine equality by Jesus also interpret John 10:29, which says the Father is greater?

How do those who interpret John 10:30 as a claim to full divine equality by Jesus also interpret John 10:29, which says the Father is greater? Jesus has two natures, one human and the other divine. ...
Ken Graham's user avatar
  • 74.5k
7 votes
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In John 8, why did the Jews call themselves "children of Abraham" not "children of Jacob" or something else?

The Jewish people certainly knew they were descended from Jacob, using that phrase elsewhere in the scriptures. When they called themselves "children of Abraham" (John 8:33 & 39) when ...
Anne's user avatar
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