10 votes
Accepted

What does it mean that "the two natures of Christ cannot be separated"?

I generally write from a reformed perspective, but I don't think there's anything in this post that other Christians (Oriental Orthodox and Church of the East aside) would disagree with. The doctrine ...
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8 votes
Accepted

What is a "Daud of Sons" as stated in Definition of Faith of the Council of Chalcedon?

I suspect it should read a 'duad of sons', not a 'daud of sons'. A duad is something made two parts. Compare it with triad or monad. The Nestorian position is sometimes described as teaching that ...
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  • 3,558
6 votes

Is it permissible for a Catholic to believe in Miaphysitism?

The short answer is that, correctly understood, Miaphysitism can be compatible with the Catholic Faith. In order to see how this is so, it is important to understand carefully what Catholics ...
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5 votes

Does the Chalcedonian Definition mean Christ has two minds?

These are deep questions that are difficult to answer, but I'll give it a shot. Most of what I'm going to say is derived from Oliver D. Crisp's book Divinity and Humanity. How far is this model to be ...
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  • 340
5 votes
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What are the differences in belief regarding Hesychasm between the Chalcedonian (Eastern) and Non-Chalcedonian (Oriental) Orthodox Churches?

As a Coptic Orthodox Christian, many of the differences between the two Churches results in the language and definitions of some key orthodox concepts. In fact, much of the Christology of both ...
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  • 311
4 votes

Why is Jesus Christ only one person despite having two minds?

There is a complex Christological history behind this question. The common ground is that Jesus Christ is of two natures, divine and human. Christ's divine nature is uncreated and pre-existent, while ...
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4 votes
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Did any Church Fathers believe that angels could still choose to become demons?

Origen of Alexandria (184/185 – 253/254) He was a passionate believer in free will. Origen broaches the subject of the hierarchical arrangement of the world early in De Principiis in relation to ...
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  • 1,626
3 votes

What does the Chalcedonian Creed mean by person?

This question has to do with the mind and the will of Christ, in what has come to be known as "The Hypostatic Union". Comments below your question flag this up. From the link below, I would ...
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3 votes

What are the major problems that Chalcedonians have with Miaphysite Christology?

My understanding is that Divine nature and human nature cannot 'merge' but are united in the Person of Christ. The union is in his Person, not in an attribute : 'nature'. I assume that I would be ...
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3 votes

According to Chalcedonian theology, did Jesus retain his human nature after his ascension, or did he return to being only divine?

At the incarnation, Christ's one hypostasis (who is fully God by nature) united himself with his own human nature. Thereby, making him both fully God and fully man in a single hypostasis. The ...
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3 votes
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In Trinitarian theologies, which nature is subservient to the Father?

Specifically, it is not the nature but the person who acts. Christ has two natures, human and divine, and His actions and statements are ascribed to either one nature or the other. In John 5:19 Christ ...
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  • 121
3 votes

Is it Proper to State that Chalcedonianism is a Moderate Position In-between Nestorianism and Monophysitism?

Nestorians don't believe in two wills and two subjects. Church of the East who has been mislabelled as Nestorians predominantly live in Syria, Iran, and India is a church from the Apostolic time who ...
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3 votes
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Is God fully Jesus?

The short answer is that, yes, Jesus, the Divine Son, is 100% God (and also 100% man), provided we understand that God does not have “parts” and so could percentages could never be properly attributed ...
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3 votes

If Jesus was resurrected as a man how can Paul say his apostleship was not through a man but it was through Jesus at Galatians 1:1?

St. Paul is saying that Jesus is not "man" in the sense he here refers to: "a mere man." Rather, Jesus, "who, being in the form of God, deemed not equality with God robbery, but humbled himself, ...
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3 votes
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What is the nature of Dyothelitism according to the Council of Chalcedon?

The Definition produced by the Council of Chalcedon in 451 is an interesting text because it wasn't intended to stand alone; it was produced by people who knew well that they were part of a series of ...
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2 votes
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Why is Jesus Christ only one person despite having two minds?

In my research, Dyothelitism (union of the two wills from the two minds of the one Christ) is actually explained by Myaphisitism (union of the two natures, the natures did not become one. The nature ...
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  • 6,295
2 votes

Why is Jesus Christ only one person despite having two minds?

Questions like this one concerning the incarnation of God really stretch the limits of what we can comprehend. Over the centuries Christians came to settle on terms like "person" or "hypostasis" as ...
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  • 18.4k
2 votes

If Jesus was resurrected as a man how can Paul say his apostleship was not through a man but it was through Jesus at Galatians 1:1?

Yes, Jesus was resurrected like a new human being. What Paul is trying to say is that his teaching is not of human origin like religious tachings are. He is trying to say he didn't got his doctrine ...
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2 votes
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How does Jesus have two wills in light of the rejection of Nestorianism? (Orthodox Trinitarian view)

Since I answered one of the original questions, I'll try answering here in a similar vein. First: Take the claim "Jesus can't be fully human without a human will;" why can't Jesus be fully ...
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  • 340
2 votes

If Jesus was resurrected as a man how can Paul say his apostleship was not through a man but it was through Jesus at Galatians 1:1?

I don't believe that the nature of Christ's resurrected body needs to be a part of the answer. Paul is creating a distinction here in Galatians 1:1 Paul, an apostle - not from men nor through man,...
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2 votes

If Jesus was resurrected as a man how can Paul say his apostleship was not through a man but it was through Jesus at Galatians 1:1?

The Greek text does not say "a man". It is not talking in the singular about any one man. It states, "...not from men..." Rather, this is a collective form, speaking of humanity. Paul was not ...
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  • 18k
2 votes

If Jesus was resurrected as a man how can Paul say his apostleship was not through a man but it was through Jesus at Galatians 1:1?

The question, which I am answering (as it stands at 19:09 GMT on 03 February 2020) is : How can Paul say his apostleship is not from men, neither through man ? Paul makes clear in Galatians 1:1 that ...
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  • 19.3k
2 votes
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What is the source of this quote testifying Mary's assumption?

According to Shoemaker's Ancient Traditions of the Virgin Mary's Dormition and Assumption pp. 68-69, it's from the Euthymiac History: Perhaps the most famous of these traditions is a brief work ...
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  • 33.8k
2 votes

According to those holding to Chalcedonian theology, how did Jesus increase in wisdom?

According to Chalcedonians, how did Jesus increase in wisdom? Jesus increased in wisdom through his human nature! Did Jesus know that he was God or the Son of God when he was growing up? Was he all ...
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  • 54.8k
2 votes

According to Chalcedonian theology, did Jesus retain his human nature after his ascension, or did he return to being only divine?

Chalcedon added that Lord's in-humanation (ἐνανθρώπησις) (which is a better and the more exact term than "incarnation") was done without change (ἀναλλοίωτος) (i.e. of the divine nature) and &...
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2 votes

What is the nature of Dyothelitism according to the Council of Chalcedon?

To understand what Chalcedon did, and did not establish with regard to whether Jesus had one will or two wills, it might be a good idea to state the crux of the Creed agreed upon by the emperor and ...
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1 vote

What are the major problems that Chalcedonians have with Miaphysite Christology?

One nature or two? A Divine nature, in one person; or, Divine-plus-Human natures in one person? Which is it? A hypostatic union, or a miaphysite unity? Which is it? Each perspective has something ...
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1 vote

What is the source of this quote testifying Mary's assumption?

John of Damascus records the source of the quote as from St. Juvenal bishop of Jerusalem CE 450. "St. John Damascene (d. 749) also recorded an interesting story concerning the Assumption: "St. ...
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  • 11.3k
1 vote

What does it mean that "the two natures of Christ cannot be separated"?

To the best of my understanding the meaning of being inseparable means that Jesus was and always will be the only human to possess this phenomenon, and we cannot attribute his uniqueness to any other; ...

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