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I agree with One God the Father when he said, "this is going to come down to careful exegesis of John 17:5." I also made the following statement to him here: "Regarding 2 Tim 1:9 I believe God is saying, "That is which He intended to give us and not that it was actually given. Or to put it another way Gods purpose for what awaits us in ...


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No. To the extent there is a consensus about this particular passage among Biblical Unitarians, it is probably that Jesus, when making the prayer, existed literally, and so therefore, he was asking for the notional glory to become literal. This is mentioned in a discussion of John 17:5 from BiblicalUnitarian.com. "When 2 Timothy 1:9 says that each ...


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