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Questions regarding Jeremiah (~626 BC to ~587 BC), one of the major prophets of the Hebrew Bible.

5
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Several answers have pointed out that the KJV's word choice may be due to usage of archaic English. What has not been adequately explained, as far as I see, is why the KJV and, e.g., the ESV (cf. NASB …
answered Feb 28 '17 by Susan
8
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pushed translators in the direction of “scarecrow”. From the Epistle of Jeremiah 69(70):1 Ὥσπερ γὰρ ἐν σικυηράτῳ προβασκάνιον οὐδὲν φυλάσσον, οὕτως οἱ θεοὶ αὐτῶν εἰσιν ξύλινοι καὶ περίχρυσοι καὶ … of (proto)canonical Jeremiah. 2. See also Isaiah 1:8, where the KJV agrees. The Greek is σικυήρατον in both Is 1:8 (LXX) and Ep Jer 70(69), from σίκυς (sikus) = cucumber. 3. Jack R. Lundbom …
answered Oct 4 '15 by Susan