**Is Our Lord Ever Referred to as "Jesus" by His Enemies?**

Obviously Pilate referred to to Jesus by name on a couple of occasions. 

At the trial of Jesus, Pilate addressed the crowd in the presence of Jesus himself: 

> Pilate saith to them: What shall I do then with Jesus that is called Christ? They say all: Let him be crucified. - [Matthew 27:22](https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Matthew%2027%3A22&version=DRA)

Pilate also had the name of Jesus inscribed into the title of condemnation over the head of Jesus as he hung on the Cross:

> 19 And Pilate wrote a title also, and he put it upon the cross. And the writing was: **Jesus of Nazareth, the King of the Jews**. 
>
> 20 This title therefore many of the Jews did read: because the place where Jesus was crucified was nigh to the city: and it was written in Hebrew, in Greek, and in Latin. - [John 19:19-20](https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=John+19%3A19-20+&version=DRA)

Pilate did address Jesus by name in writing also. Your question does not express that it had to be verbal only!

The Demons also referred to Jesus by name. They in themselves could be considered Jesus' archenemy.

> “Go away! What do you want with us, Jesus of Nazareth? Have you come to destroy us? I know who you are—the Holy One of God!” - [Luke 4:34](https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Luke%204%3A34&version=NIV)

> Saying: What have we to do with thee, Jesus of Nazareth? art thou come to destroy us? I know who thou art, the Holy One of God. - [Mark 1:24](https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Mark+1%3A24&version=DRA)