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Questions tagged [propitiation]

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How did Swedenborg interpret 1 John 2:2: “He is the propitiation for our sins”?

Many Christians believe that Jesus died to appease the anger of God. One reason for this is 1 John 2:2, which says: And he is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the ...
9
votes
2answers
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How do Calvinists interpret 1 John 2:2 in light of Limited Atonement?

1 John 2:2 (ESV) He is the propitiation for our sins, and not for ours only but also for the sins of the whole world. Understanding the "ours" as referring to the universal church of believers, ...
4
votes
1answer
254 views

If God cannot change, then why does His wrath need to be appeased?

More or less I am asking for a defense of the propitiatory view of atonement in which God changes from being angry to being happy with us rather than sinners being the ones who need to change. Perhaps ...