Skip to main content

All Questions

Filter by
Sorted by
Tagged with
0 votes
3 answers
165 views

According to Trinitarians, why didn't Jesus correct the scribe's use of 'Him' at Mark 12:32-33?

Mark 12:28-34 contains a back-and-forth between Jesus and a scribe. 28 Now one of the scribes had come up and heard their debate. Noticing how well Jesus had answered them, he asked Him, “Which ...
Only True God's user avatar
1 vote
1 answer
107 views

What is the standard term for views that aren't Unitarian?

When talking about views that aren't Trinitarian (such as LDS, JW, Christian Science, and so on) people often use the term 'Non-Trinitarian'. Is there a standard term for views that are 'Non-Unitarian'...
Only True God's user avatar
3 votes
4 answers
3k views

Does 1 Corinthians 8:6 prove Unitarianism? [closed]

yet for us there is one God, the Father, from whom are all , things and for whom we exist, and one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom are all things and through whom we exist. 1 Corinthians 8:6 ESV To ...
Sebastian Clinciu's user avatar